Saturday, 31 October 2015

meaning - What does -komu (~込む) at the end of a word mean?


There are loads of words in Japanese which end in 込{こ}む, like 吸{す}い込む, 読{よ}み込む, 入{はい}り込む, 打{う}ち込む, 売{う}り込む, 送{おく}り込む, 押{お}し込む. How does adding ~込む change the meaning? What is the meaning that links all these words?



Answer



込む by itself can be interpreted as a intransitive verb to mean "jammed in", "packed in", "crowded". For example 電車が込む


However, when 込む is used with compound verbs it can have 3 different interpretations.





  1. ‘to enter; put something in/into’


    Implies a physical transition where an object (or a person) shifts from a place into an enclosed location.


    Examples
    雨が吹き込む - Rain blows in.
    飛び込む - Jump in/Dive.




  2. 'to do/become something thoroughly/fully/deeply/intensively'


    Normally denotes that someone undergoes a certain physical/psychological occurrence that produces physical/mental changes or development.


    Examples

    教え込む - Inculcate a thing (in a person’s mind); instill into (a person); give a good training.
    思い込む - Be convinced; be under the impression; set one’s heart; fall in love.




  3. ‘to continue an action within the same condition’


    Indicates that someone is involved in a physical recurrent action.


    Examples
    黙り込む - Fall silent; keep one’s mouth shut; clam up.





Reference: 高橋 直子, “Syntactic Complexity of Komu-compounds in Japanese”, 名古屋外国語大学外国語学部紀要 (Journal of School of Foreign Languages, Nagoya University of Foreign Studies) 36 (2009), 169–193. (PDF)


usage - Are there any Japanese words as versatile as "fuck" in English?



I was wondering about this one recently. "Fuck" in English is famous for being applicable in a wide, wide range of circumstances (none of them formal).


What word in Japanese covers a wide spectrum of possible meanings and uses like "fuck" does. Does not have to be a rude/vulgar term.


Any suggestions?


EDIT: half of you seem to have missed the point of my question. I don't need a translation for "fuck", I want a word as versatile. Maji is pretty good but I would've thought there'd be more contenders. Admittedly it's a vague question, but one for my izakaya zatsugaku collection.



Answer



I am surprised nobody mentioned: マジ ("maji")


Only used as an adverb, with the meaning of "fucking", for instance マジ寒い for "fucking cold".


Combinations can be done: チョウ寒い、マジで!


thermodynamics - Is molarity an intensive property?


$$\mathrm{molarity} = \frac{\text{amount of solute}}{\text{volume of solution}} $$ and amount of substance is based on quantity (larger mass means larger amount), so how come it is an intensive property. Shouldn't it be an extensive property?




organic chemistry - pKaH of pyridine versus other imines


Why is pyridine so much more acidic than other similar imines (5.5 versus ~9, see picture)? Wouldn't delocalization of the positive charge into the aromatic system stabilize it and hence decrease acidity? Also the lone pair of pyridine is not delocalized into the perpendicular $\pi$-system and hence not any less available than the one of the projected imine.


Organic Chemistry by Clayden et al. p. 1149.


(Source: Organic Chemistry by Clayden et al. p. 1149. )




Friday, 30 October 2015

What is meant by LFM (Linear Frequency Modulation) waveform?


I m a newbie in radar experiment on which currently i m working, and I m trying to understand the transmitted waveform which is LFM (Linear Frequency Modulation), but unable to interlink between the following parameters of transmitted signal waveform ,can someone explain to me how do these are connected to LFM?


Center frequency : 150kHz Sampling Frequency: 4000kHz Bandwidth : 50kHz Pulse length : 500microseonds



Answer




An LFM pulse is one in which the "instantaneous frequency" changes linearly over the duration of the pulse. By "instantaneous frequency" I mean the rate of change of phase. Over its $\tau=500\mu s$ duration, a pulse with "bandwidth" $B=50 kHz$ and center frequency $f_c=150 kHz$ would be defined by


$f(t)=A\cos(\theta(t))=A\cos(2\pi(f_c-B/2)t+\pi(B/\tau)t^2+\theta_0)$


Taking the derivative of phase with respect to time, we have


$\partial\theta(t)/\partial{t}=2\pi(f_c-B/2)+2\pi(B/\tau)t $


We can see that this sweeps from $2\pi(f_c-B/2)$ to $2\pi(f_c+B/2)$ over the duration of the pulse.


An LFM pulse provides better range resolution than an unmodulated pulse of the same duration.


organic chemistry - How are odor and electronic structure related to aromaticity?


I know that cyclic planer molecules with $2n + 1$ $\pi$-electrons are aromatic. Also, the color of a compound is due to electronic transitions. But how is it related with aromaticity (smell)? Is there any such relation or is it the chemical property of any compound (matter)?


If it is chemical property of matter then what is its cause?


P.S. My question isn't about nomenclature, its about what is in benzene or any other aromatic compound that make it aromatic i.e. their smell? And what specifically is the roll of electrons in their smell?



Answer



The smell of a compound as we perceive it usually depends on which receptors in the nose will bind the molecule (or not). (There are exceptions for molecules that actually react with these receptors, such as $\ce{HCl}$, but benzene and most aromatics are not one of these exceptions.)


These receptor, being proteins, are usually rather specific for certain shapes, not for bonding patterns. So chlorobenzene might fit into similar receptors as toluene which would lead to at least partly a similar smell, but that is it.


The definition of aromatic is, as Todd pointed out, one based on structure. Some aromatic compounds have similar structures, but there is no way that (say) furane would occupy the same or similar receptors as benzo(a)pyrene would. Therefore, their common feature aromaticity does not lead to a common odour.


grammar - Usage of なんて and なんか as emphasis


When are なんて and なんか used as emphasis in casual speech? Are they used when you're surprised, angry or can it be both? What sort of feeling does it convey to the listener compared to a normal sentence without it.


For example, in the following 3 sentences I'm not entirely sure what the "なんて” and ”なんか” are expressing.



こんな[所]{ところ}におばけなんていねーよ。 There are no ghosts in a place like this.


[彼女]{かのじょ}が[結婚]{けっこん}したなんてちっとも[知]{し}らなかった。 I had no idea she got married.


[私]{わたし}なんか3[枚]{まい}のレポートも[書]{か}けない。 I cannot even write a 3 page report.




Answer



They are basically "weak" form of は in this context. My grammar book says 「〜を大切ではないと考えている(軽視する)時の言葉」. Basically when you're kind of ignoring the importance of, or even slightly putting down, the topic of the sentence. 愛なんか要らない。(I don't need love!)



So like for your first example to me sounds like, "There's no stupid ghosts around here" (like almost taunting any that might be there). Or the second one has the tone of "Well, I had no idea she got married, but whatever."


The usage is [微妙]{び・みょう}. Don't overuse it, or you'll sound like you're better than everyone/everything. Especially don't use it if something needs to have importance placed on it.


grammar - Joining adjectives with し before a noun



A recent question asked about joining two adjectives together. It used the following example:



(example 1) きれい静か



As I understand it, this is the combination of the 連用形 of きれいだ with the 連体形 of 静かだ. Let's turn this example into 終止形 instead of 連体形 for my question:



(example 2) 町はきれい静か



According to this answer, you can also join two adjectives with . In this case, I would replace with and add :




(example 3) 町はきれいだし静か



I think this means the same thing as example 2. (According to sawa's answer here, the て-form has two restrictions, "it implies temporal order" and "volitionality of what is connected must match". Neither restriction sounds relevant in this case, so I don't think replacing with だし changes the meaning.)


However, what if I were to change it back to 連体形 like in example 1? Can I join two adjectives with し like this:



(example 4) きれいだし静か



I feel like example 4 is wrong because it parses as two separate clauses, like きれいだ plus 静かな町, which doesn't make sense to me. In contrast, I think example 1 is parsed as きれいで静かな modifying , which does make sense to me.


Am I correct that you can't join adjectives with し before a noun like in example 4?



Answer




Strictly speaking し is better used in its full form ~し~し. E.g.



この町は美しいし静かだし、住みやすそうですね。
This town is pretty, it is quiet—it seems to be very liveable.



(It does occur by itself, but a longer list is usually implied. There are other uses that derive from this one, but that is a different matter.)


It lists any number of properties, which support your statement in the rest of the sentence. The list, however, is grammatically removed from the rest of the sentence. That is, the result can't modify anything (na-adjective, noun) directly. Your examples 3 & 4 are borderline. They would sound more natural with a structure ~し~し like my example above.


thermodynamics - Solubility increases as Temperature increases.. Ks increases with temperature meaning dissolving is endothermic... But what about NaOH?



Question: I was self-studying and came across some confusion across a question. My confusion lies in this: Solubility increases as temperature (T) increases, Ks increases with T, meaning dissolving is endothermic. But what about $\ce{NaOH}$?


The problem I am putting forward is more to do with the equilibrium Ks, especially using the Le Châtelier's principle. We all know that the solubility of ionic substances increases as increases in temperature. That is a fact, we don't have to argue with that. We also know that dissolving $\ce{NaOH}$ is exothermic, so we don't need to discuss that. However the two statements (observations) contradict the Le Chatelier principle, because if the dissolution of $\ce{NaOH}$ is exothermic, the solubility should decreases with increase in temperature! Why doesn't it?





parshanut torah comment - Where is the source for assigning a pasuk to each year since creation?


I remember having been told that there are those who assign each of the 5845 pesukim in the Torah to each year since creation. This is from memory as I have not found the reference yet. Would anyone have a reference that talks about this?


Thanks to @Loewian who found Missing Pesukim which gives counts. However I found some places in this post where a 1 is shown as an 8 (108 vs 101 for Tetzaveh and 118 vs 111 for Vayikra) based on what is printed at the end of the parsha in Art Scroll.


UPDATE I finally managed to go through the Art Scroll Chumash with the Parsha counts. However, the totals at the end of the Chumash for each sefer do not match up with the totals calculated from the list at the end of each Parsha or from counting the verses printed, as follows: Shmos has 1207 or 1210 depending how you count between Ta'amei elyon and ta'amei tachton of Aseres Hadibros (10 vs 13) in Yisro. Vayikra differs because of Tzav (96 vs 97). Devorim totals 953 or 956 depending how you count between Ta'amei elyon and ta'amei tachton of Aseres Hadibros (10 vs 13) in Vaeschanan where taamei tachton in Artscroll starts at 5:6 and ends at 5:18 for a count of 13 (as it has in Yisro). The mesorah count at the end of Vaeschanan says 118 while the printed count shows 7+49+30+25+11 = 122 for a difference of 4. The ta'amei tachton accounts for the three of the difference. The other parshios match the physical count and the individual parsha mesorah count exactly according to the Art Scroll Chumash. The book totals below though are still off.


Double AA points out: In another answer I show that the correct mesorah note in old manuscripts for Vaeschanan is 119 which solves the issue in that parsha, but the book total issue remains for Artscroll. However, in Mechon Mamre's edition based on the old manuscripts, Yisro has only 74 verses and Vaeschanan has only 121 verse (counting both with taamei tachton, unlike how the individual parsha mesorah does) which gives the correct traditional book totals below of 1209 and 955. So the individual parsha mesorah uses the taamei elyon while the book total uses the taamei tachton, and there are no issues remaining when we use the manuscript versions.



Torah Facts says that they got the following numbers from the mesorah. This matches the numbers shown at the end of the Art Scroll Chumash for book totals, but does not match the number of verses they print if you count them.


Bereishis - 1534


Shmos - 1209


Vayikra - 859


Bamidbar - 1288


Devorim - 955


Total - 5845


As an example, I estimated (by subtracting) that the current year is about Haazinu 32:24



מְזֵי רָעָב וּלְחֻמֵי רֶשֶׁף וְקֶטֶב מְרִירִי וְשֶׁן בְּהֵמֹת אֲשַׁלַּח בָּם עִם חֲמַת זֹחֲלֵי עָפָר:



They will sprout hair from famine, attacked by demons, excised by Meriri. I will incite the teeth of livestock upon them, with the venom of creatures that slither in the dust.



Vayelech would begin the year 5682 (1922), which would make 1940 about 31:18



וְאָנֹכִי הַסְתֵּר אַסְתִּיר פָּנַי בַּיּוֹם הַהוּא עַל כָּל הָרָעָה אֲשֶׁר עָשָׂה כִּי פָנָה אֶל אֱלֹהִים אֲחֵרִים:


And I will hide My face on that day, because of all the evil they have committed, when they turned to other deities.



The flood (1656) would have been pasuk 122 in Shmos of the 124 pesukim counted at the end of the parsha which would make it 5:22



וַיָּשָׁב משֶׁה אֶל יְהֹוָה וַיֹּאמַר אֲדֹנָי לָמָה הֲרֵעֹתָה לָעָם הַזֶּה לָמָּה זֶּה שְׁלַחְתָּנִי:



So Moses returned to the Lord and said, "O Lord! Why have You harmed this people? Why have You sent me?





tefilla - Transliteración de la Amidá en Español - Transliteration of the Amidah into Spanish


Estoy buscando una transliteración del rezo Shemoné-Esré en la lengua español. ¿Puede usted, por favor, ayudarme? Yo también quiero los rezos y cánticos para el Shabat.


I'm looking for a transliteration of the Shemone Esre into Spanish. Can you please help me? I also want the prayers and songs (Zemirot) for Shabbat.



Answer



Here's nusach Sefard (or maybe Sephardi?): http://atase-bilbao.blogspot.com/2009/05/amida.html


And here's a harder-to-read version with both nusach sephard and Sephardi nusach: http://shalomhaverim.org/conversion10.html


For Kabalat Shabbat prayers, check out a this Spanish siddur with translation and transliteration: http://www.scribd.com/doc/82745593/Siddur-Beit-Hillel-El-Salvador. It has commentary and "alternative versions" from the Reform siddur, Mishkan Tefilah, in it, and it's missing a lot.


everyday chemistry - Does water really 'go bad' after a couple of days?


Among my friends it is a sort of 'common wisdom' that you should throw away water after a couple of days if it was taken from the tap and stored in a bottle outside the fridge, because it has 'gone bad'. First of all, the couple of days is not very well defined, which already makes me a bit suspicious. Second, I cannot think of anything in tap water that would make the water undrinkable after a couple of days already.



Can someone clarify this issue for me? Does tap water really 'go bad' after a couple of days outside the fridge? Why?



Answer



First of all, it depends on how the tap water was treated before it was piped to your house. In most cases, the water was chlorinated to remove microorganisms. By the time the water arrives at your house, there is very little (if any) chlorine left in the water. When you fill you container, there is likely to be some microorganisms present (either in the container or in the water). In a nutrient rich environment, you can see colonies within 3 days. For tap water, it will probably take 2 to 3 weeks. But that doesn't mean that the small amount of growth doesn't produce bad tasting compounds (acetic acid, urea, etc.).


BTW Nicolau Saker Neto, cold water dissolves more gas than hot water. Watch when you heat water on your stove. Before it boils, you will see gas bubbles that form on the bottom and go to the surface (dissolved gases) and bubbles that disappear while rising to the surface (water vapor).


women - What type of name should an androgynous be given?


An androgynous that has both signs of a male and female, should they be given a female name, a male name, or a "neutral" name (like "simcha" or "yona".) Is there any makor for this?


(I realize this might not be a practical question since there is already a discussion about what to do if someone is born a androgynous and have a medical procedure to change the child one way or another.) However from a standpoint that that wouldn't have been done and that the person would live as they are.)




verbs - Is 「たくなった」 a typo or a grammatical structure that is different than I think it is?


I have this sentence in my JLPT exercise book:



彼{かれ}は有名人{ゆうめいじん}ゆえの不自由{ふじゆう}さから逃{に}げたくなった。



The translation offered is:




He wanted to get away from the difficulties of being a celebrity.



What is throwing me is the 逃{に}げたくなった part. It seems to me that the past tense form of "wanted to get away" should be 逃{に}げたかった, and the past tense form of "did not want to get away" should be 逃{に}げたくなかった. I feel the English translation probably represents the intended meaning, because it would be weird to not want to get away from difficulties, but on the other hand my own translation of the original Japanese is something along the lines that he did not want to escape.


So what is 逃{に}げたくなった? Am I wrong about the verb forms I think it should be, or is something else going on here?



Answer



逃げたくなった is:



  • 逃げる = "to flee", in its stem form (連用形) → 逃げ

  • ~たい = the suffix that expresses wanting to do, conjugated to ~たく (again, the 連用形)

  • なる = "to become", in past tense → なった



So this means something to the effect of "it became the case that he wanted to get away".


For the sentence as a whole, I would offer a translation like "he began to want to get away from the difficulties of being a celebrity".


For "he did not want to get away", you would indeed use 逃げたくなった.


information theory - Can the Entropy Be Used as a Measure of the Contrast of an Image?


I was looking for value that can measure a contrast of an image. And I found a couple of answers like this one https://stackoverflow.com/questions/13397394/how-to-measure-contrast-in-opencv-visual-c/13398126.


But I can't find any explanations WHY is that. No articles or links. So I wrote this code:



def shannon_entropy(img):

histogram = img.histogram()
histogram_length = sum(histogram)

samples_probability = [float(h) / histogram_length for h in histogram]

return -sum([p * math.log(p, 2) for p in samples_probability if p != 0])

And found the Shannon entropy for four images:



- original image "image_1". Entropy is 7.82426730799067


- more contrast image "contrast". Entropy is 5.682661230050924


- much more contrast image "contrast2". Entropy is 2.1507540571698587


- less contrast image "contrastLow". Entropy is 6.565885023104716


I thought, that for the last image entropy will be the highest, but no. And it completely baffled me.


Can somebody explain:



  1. Why entropy is a measure of contrast?

  2. What's wrong with my images or calculations?




Answer





Why entropy value can be used as measure of contrast of an image?



It can't. Entropy is not a function of contrast.


I'll show why. Time for a bit of basic Information Theory¹:



Definitions


Let's define $H(·)$ as the entropy of a source; imagine $X$ is your source picture, $Y$ is the picture after you subjected it to some operation $F:\, F(X)=Y$ (e.g. contrast spreading, or compression, or adding random noise).



Intuition of Entropy


$H(X)$ is a measure for the amount of information in the source image. It's hence a measure for the "uncertainty" of the value of each pixel; if that picture was just one intensity all over, the uncertainty would be low, and so the information, and thus the entropy.


Let's assume your input image has enough contrast to at least make use of 8 bits of dynamic range. Then, the highest entropy you could get would be 8 bit per pixel – in case all pixel values are present equally likely. That's how I know your entropy calculation is broken – a black and white image only has two values, and the discrete uniform distribution over 2 values has exactly 1 bit of entropy, and any other distribution has less. You'll need to fix your entropy calculation!


Contrast


However, contrast doesn't care about the full distribution – there's different contrast definitions/measures, but they typically only consider the first and second statistical moment. Many distributions can have the same variance – but only one is the uniform distribution that maximizes entropy. From that alone you can see that while there is a relation between contrast and entropy, it's not a direct relation:


You just can't have high entropy with very low contrast. However, high contrast doesn't say much about entropy.


Applying image transformations


Consider your contrast enhancements:


$H(X|Y)$ is the amount of the uncertainty that remains about the original image when you apply the operation $Y=F(X)$.


When your operation $F$ is reversible (e.g. if you just invert the pixel values, or if you scale them by 2 without clipping because an original value was larger than half the maximum pixel value), then there's nothing unclear about the original image (just apply the "reverse" operation), and thus $H(X|F(X)=Y)=0$. If you think about it, it's pretty intuitive: A revertible operation doesn't change the probabilities, it just changes the values that have these probabilities.



Information in the face of change


We call the information we get about the source when looking at our transformed image the mutual information between $X$ and $Y$, $I(X;Y)$. It's the difference between the source $X$'s entropy and the conditional entropy $H(X|Y)$, i.e. $I(X;Y) = H(Y) - H(Y|X)$!


Mutual information


In the case that the operation is revertible, as you can see, $H(X|Y)=0\implies I(X;Y)=H(X)$.


And, since we know the deterministic operation $F$, the uncertainty about what $Y$ looks like if we know $X$ is $H(Y|X)=0$, too, so that $H(Y)=I(X;Y)$, and conclusively, $H(Y)=H(X)$. In other words, when you do an invertible operation, you can't increase or reduce entropy.


Now, there's the thing: Your contrast operations aren't revertible, simply because



  1. your image has finite bit depth, so some rounding happens and different values in $X$ get mapped to the same value in $Y$,

  2. your image has finite bit depth, so there is some clipping when you reach the extreme values.



That means that you get a $H(X|Y) > 0$; from that we can see that $I(X;Y). However, since the operation you apply is still deterministic (i.e. you can calculate $Y=F(X)$ based on $X$, it's always the same), the uncertainty about $Y$ knowing $X$ is zero, $H(Y|X) = 0$, and therefore


$$H(Y)=I(X;Y)+H(Y|X)=I(X;Y) + 0 = I(X;Y) < H(X),$$


which is exactly what you see: all your contrast-stretching and -reducing operations decrease the entropy compared to the original image.




  1. Having high contrast is a necessary, not a sufficient condition for high entropy

  2. Entropy is limited by the number of values occupied

  3. Entropy is invariant to revertible (that implies deterministic) (image) operations

  4. Entropy is reduced by deterministic non-revertible operations



Corollary:



  1. if you want to increase an image's entropy, you'll need to do something non-deterministic, like adding noise.

  2. Information theory is fun and you should definitely study it.



Here's an entropy function that makes sense; I don't know what kind of data type img is, but I assume you can just go through all its values (it's iterable).


from collections import Counter

def shannon_entropy(img):

ld = lambda x: math.log(x, 2)
value_counter = Counter(img)
N = len(img)
H = 0
for count in value_counter.values(): #this gives the counts of values
p = float(count)/N
H = H - p*ld(p)
return H



¹ yes, that is a pun.



chanuka - Where did they light the Menorah after they won the war with the Greeks


In the Al Hanisim that we add on Chanukah we say:


V'hidliku neirot b'chatzrot kodshecha Translated as kindled lights in Your holy courts


It sounds as if the Menorah from the temple was lit outdoors is that the case and Why?



Answer



Chasam Sofer says that it means that they actually lit the Menorah outdoors in the courtyard, because the Heichal was still full of idols.



In an alternative explanation, he says that the actual Menorah was lit in its usual place inside the Heichal, but that they also lit a makeshift menorah (made of iron poles) outdoors (using regular oil), to publicize the miracle.


In a somewhat similar vein, the Lubavitcher Rebbe zt"l says that this phrase refers to other lights which they lit outdoors, throughout the courtyards (hence the plural) of the Beis Hamikdash, as a display of gratitude and honor to Hashem. (He analogizes these to the large candelabra that they lit during Simchas Beis Hashoeivah.)


Chanuka Shavuos connection



What connections does Chanuka have with Shavuos?





Thursday, 29 October 2015

bond - Can I perform electrolysis without electrolyte? (with distilled water)


When performing electrolysis at home, I usually used salt water as electrolyte. The problem is, that this method also produces chlorine and chlorine is aggressive to both humans and electrical equipment.


I was thinking of creating pure hydrogen and oxygen by using distilled water. I was taught that water is not conductive.


But since water has "positive" and "negative" part (which allows for it to dissolve polar bonds, doesn't it?). Couldn't I just tear the molecules apart if I use electrical field strong enough? If I can, how high the voltage must be?



Answer




If I can, how high the voltage must be?




Not possible at home.


For obtaining pure hydrogen and oxygen it is still required to use an electrolyte. However, there is some amount of them that are not electrolyzed, allowing to electrolyze only water. I'd try sodium/potassium hydroxide or sulfate.


beis hamikdash - If it has been established that sacrifices are not needed for atonement, then why do we need to reinstate the Temple?


If it has been established that sacrifices are not needed for atonement, then why do we need to reinstate the Temple?


Jeremiah 7:22-23 "For neither did I speak with your forefathers nor did I command them on the day I brought them out of the land of Egypt, concerning a burnt offering or a sacrifice. 23 But this thing did I command them, saying: Obey Me so that I am your God and you are My people, and you walk in all the ways that I command you, so that it may be well with you"


Proverbs 21:3 "Performing charity and justice is preferred by God to a sacrifice."



Psalms 40:7 "You desired neither sacrifice nor meal offering; You dug ears for me; a burnt offering or a sin offering You did not request."


Rashi explains in his commentary of Psalms 40:7 as meaning "..but I did not require it as an obligation to burden you", i.e sacrifice is merely optional.


So time and time again God expresses his discontent with sacrifices in light of the much higher importance of clinging to his laws.


Why is the Temple then altogether needed? and why is it associated with the redemption of the Jewish people?



Answer



The quotations used are designed to show that Korbanot are not the principal method of atonement, nor are they set up to overshadow the other halachot. However those karbanot that are required must be performed according to the halacha. as we see in Rambam Hilchos Melachim 11:1



In the future, the Messianic king will arise and renew the Davidic dynasty, restoring it to its initial sovereignty. He will build the Temple and gather the dispersed of Israel.


Then, in his days, the observance of all the statutes will return to their previous state. We will offer sacrifices, observe the Sabbatical and Jubilee years according to all their particulars as described by the Torah.




Examples would be the Korbon Pesach, the Korbon Chagiga required on the three Pilgrimage Festivals, the Korbon Tamid, and the Musafim of the Shabbat and special days.


Thus, even if no-one would sin (to require a korbon chatos) or even bring any voluntary offering (such as a todah), there would still be korbanos required.


As Rashi says on Yirmiyahu 7:22



on the day I brought them forth: The beginning of the condition was only (Exodus 19: 5): “If you hearken to My voice and keep My covenant, you shall be a peculiar treasure to Me.”



Which includes all the commandments (which include sacrifices as well as acting correctly).


Similarly, Machon Mamare explains



Some who support the claim that Rambam and Rav Kook believe animal sacrifice will have no place in the Third Temple attempt to argue that sacrifices were always a concession and that God actually disdains the practice. Examples of oft-cited verses from Tanach that they use are: “To what purpose is the multitude of your sacrifices to Me?” (Isaiah 1:11); “For I spoke not unto your fathers . . . concerning burnt-offerings or sacrifice. But this thing I commanded them: ‘Obey My voice and I will be your God’” (Jeremiah 7:21); “For I [God] desire mercy, and not sacrifice, and the knowledge of God rather than burnt-offerings” (Hosea 6:6) and many others. But as is evident when reading the verses in context, the prophets are not railing against sacrifices per se, but rather against sacrifices that are not accompanied by compassion for others and knowledge of God. In fact, these very same prophets, Ezekiel in particular, prophesized about the renewal of the sacrificial order.16



It is clear that animal sacrifices have deep spiritual value. Each one of the Avot brought animal sacrifices. In numerous places throughout Nach, the prophets express their longing for the restoration of the Temple service. Finally, the Talmud takes it as a given that sacrifices will be reinstated.


So will there be sacrifices in the Third Temple? The overwhelming majority opinion is that there will be. Rambam and Rav Kook seem to share this view. It should be noted that while Rav Kook envisioned the restoration of the sacrificial rite, in his view, that period would also include a return of prophecy and the Divine spirit to the nation.


16 See Jacob Chinitz, “Were the Prophets Opposed to Sacrifice?,” Jewish Bible Quarterly 36 (April-June 2008):2,.



The problem was that people regarded korbanot in a way similar to the pagan idea of a magical action that would automatically bring atonement even if the halachos of the Torah were ignored. This is what the quoted citations in the question were referring to.



The context, the Soncino says, makes it evident that a contrast is drawn between offerings on the altar and the moral laws enjoined in the Decalogue. True, continual burnt-offerings were obligatory upon the community, not upon the individual, but the prophet's scorn for the misplaced emphasis upon sacrifice is not to be taken as a rejection of the sacrificial system as a whole.



number - Chamisha Veshiv'im?


Who knows seventy-five?


Please cite/link your sources, if possible. At some point in the next few days, I will:





  • Upvote all interesting answers.




  • Accept the best answer.




  • Go on to the next number.





Answer




Depending on your count, seventy-five are the tractates of the Mishna (63) plus the minor tractates:



  1. Avos D'Rabi Nasan (counting as separate from Avos)

  2. Sofrim

  3. Semachos

  4. Kallah, Kallah Rabsi (counting as one)

  5. Derech Eretz Rabba and Zuta, the latter including Perek HaShalom

  6. Sefer Torah

  7. Mezuzah

  8. Tefillin


  9. Tzitzis

  10. Avadaim

  11. Geirim

  12. Kusim




Seventy-five was Avraham's age (then "Avram") when he left for Israel. Though this was not the first move in his life; it appears his father had initiated a move and hadn't completed it.




להם ("to them") has Gematria 75, and it appears more often in Tanach than all other 75-words combined.


Every book of Tanach (counting the Twelve individually) contains at least one 75-word, except for Nachum.



Lowpass Butterworth filter design (own poles' calculations)


I'm trying to calculate coefficients for my Butterworth filter of my own. I've found this article that looks really reliable. But I'm trying to implement it in MATLAB and I'm getting bandstop filter. Please find attached matlab script below:


clc, clear all, close all;
%DIGITAL BUTTERWORTH FILTER DESING
%Butterworth LP with -3dB at fc and N order and G gain
fs = 10; %frequency sampling
fc = 1; %cut off frequency
N = 2; %filter order
G = 1; %filter gain
wc = 2*pi*fc;


%analog filter design
%poles and zeros
k = [1:1:N];
%poles searching
%sk = wc * exp(((j*pi)/(2*N))*(2.*k+N-1))
sk = wc * exp(j*(pi/2)) * exp(j*(2.*k+1)*pi/2*N);
z = 0;
G = 1;
[NUM,DEN] = zp2tf(z,sk,G);

%no zeros for LP
Hs = tf(1,DEN)

%filter analysis
figure(1);
subplot(3,1,1)
pzmap(Hs);
subplot(3,1,2)
impulseplot(Hs);
subplot(3,1,3)

stepplot(Hs);
fvtool(1,DEN);

I've calculated poles according to equation $10.3.47$ in the article and created transfer function with this poles as a parameters. But fvtool shows bandstop filter instead of lowpass (as described in article). In pzmap I'm getting also pole on right side of $s$-plane so it seems to be unstable. I dont really know how to interpretet this results.


impuleplot, stepplot and fvtool


Maks




grammar - Does a list using と end with が?


Asking this other question has reminded me of another confusion I often have, one of my long standing bad habits that you'd think I'd have sorted after all this time in Japan.


I'm never quite sure how to end a list of two or more things. So, I want to say "I like apples and oranges."


Saying it this way seems weird, because of having and together. It just feels weird in my mouth.




りんごとオレンジとが好{す}きだ。



This next option also feels weird, though, because it's like saying, "apples and oranges and like".



りんごとオレンジと好{す}きだ。



Which is right? Or are both wrong?


Does it make a difference if there's more than two items?




りんごとオレンジとパパイヤと(が)好{す}きだ。




Answer



The most usual way is to attach と to all alternatives except for the last one:



りんごとオレンジが好きだ。
りんごとオレンジとパパイヤが好きだ。



(Unrelated note: “papaya” is usually パパイヤ rather than パパヤ in Japanese.)


Attaching と to all alternatives including the last one is acceptable.




りんごとオレンジとが好きだ。
りんごとオレンジとパパイヤとが好きだ。



I heard that in older days, と was always attached to all alternatives, but I do not have anything to back up this claim.


The following are ungrammatical.



りんごとオレンジと好きだ。
りんごとオレンジとパパイヤと好きだ。




mysticism kabbalah - How to remedy a case of possible Ayin Hara?


If someone gave you a bunch of compliments that you suspected might be based on some jealousy, what can you do to ward off any possible Ayin Hara--at the time the compliments were given or afterwards?



Answer



The Ben Ish Chai Shanah Beis parshas Pinchas 13 cites from the gemara in Berachos 20a what pesukim to say to save oneself from ayin harah. He then lists other pesukim as well. See there for the lists of pesukim. Lastly, he cites the custom cites earlier by the Chidah to say Chamsah and make a palm shaped wood piece with the letter of Hashem.



internet - good learning site




what is a good source for learning?




physical chemistry - What does it mean for a reaction to favor the reactants/products?


(This example is purely hypothetical.)


You have the reaction $$\ce{H2(g) + O2(g) <=> H2O2(g)}$$


at $T = 500\ \mathrm{K}$. The reaction reaches equilibrium at the following concentrations:


$$\ce{[H2]} = \ce{[O2]} = 5 \times 10^{-3}\ \mathrm{mol\ dm^{-3}}$$ $$\ce{[H2O2]} = 4\times10^{-5}\ \mathrm{mol\ dm^{-3}}$$


This gives $$K_c = \left(\frac{\ce{[H2O2]}}{\ce{[H2][O2]}}\right) = 1.6$$


However, the total concentration of the reactants is $250$ times higher than the concentration of the product.


Still, as $K_c > 1$, per definition, the products are favored.


This seems counterintuitive to me, and my Chemistry teacher couldn't really explain it to me, so I was hoping someone here could explain why, even when the reactants are so much more plentiful, the products are considered to be favored.





Wednesday, 28 October 2015

history - Rabbinical suppport for reducing noise at weddings


There is a verse in Devarim (Deut) - Don't recall exact location that says "Watch your lives very carefully". From here we learn that we must do what we can to preserve our health.


So, I'm wondering if there has ever been a rabbinical decree / statement that requested Jewish event hosts to reduce the music / band volume at Jewish events? It is a well-known fact that prolonged exposure to loud music causes hearing loss. If so, when the band knowingly plays such loud music (proof - the band players are wearing headphones or ear plugs), it seems they are violating the rule of ruining other people's health, and, perhaps, enjoyment of the simchah.




purim torah in jest - Mah tov la-adam bachayim?



Who knows what is good for a person in life?


?מה טוב לאדם בחיים - מי יודע


Contrary to the spirit of Kohelet 6:12, please post happy and lighthearted Jewish prescriptions for what is good for a person in life.


If you think that lazy gematria's appropriate for answering such an important question, that's up to you.



Check out for the previous entry in this ongoing series.


Please include sources for your information wherever possible, as with all other answers on this site.







halacha - Complimenting or giving gifts to gentiles


My brother recently introduced me to some new Halachot (laws) about not giving gifts to gentiles and not complimenting them. What are the pertinent Halachot that I should be aware of, so that I'll have an idea of which situations I need to be careful about or ask a rabbi about?



Answer



The Kof-k goes through the sugya nicely and provides examples when it would be muter or assur to show favor.


this is link to the sources(I am not going to summarize it because they did that already) http://www.kof-k.org/articles/040108110431W-28%20Lo%20Sichaneim.pdf


minhag - Decorating of the Beitzah


Somebody told me in Israel some have the custom of decorating the egg for Pesach (like an Easter egg). Wouldn't that be considered chukas hagoyim or avoda zara?




word choice - What is the difference in terms of grammar between きり and っぱなし?


I'm pretty sure there is a difference between the use of these two words. I came across the example sentences:



息子は、自分の部屋に入ったきり出てこない。


母は入院している父をつきっきりで看病している。


電車が混んでいて、東京まで立ちっぱなしだった。



I read from a textbook that きり means 「〜ままずっと」 and that っぱなし means 「ずっと+verb」. However, I'm thinking that the difference is that with きり, a negative situation exists that does not change (or does not hint at changing in the future). I also guess that っぱなし would indicate that a situation (negative) continued for a long time but then changed in the end. Does this seem correct?


I put the second example sentence because I was told by a native that when using きり it is usually followed by 〜ない. Though, the second example doesn't. Are there two possible meanings when using this grammatical form?



Answer




The difference, I believe, is that ~ぱなし refers to when something is left as it is for some amount of time, such as a window being left open. It can be either opened or closed at any time, it just happens to be left open for the amount of time being spoken about.


~きり refers to "completeness", so something has happened and is now finalized in that form. More like a window being broken. The "broken-ness" of the window is not something that we can easily switch from.


So in your first example, the son has gone into his room, and now he's done dealing with people. He's not coming out, the situation is ended. Presumably, the son will come out of the room again some time in his life, but the use of ~きり conveys a sentiment of finality - he won't come out for the rest of the day.


In your third example, there is no completion involved in standing on a train, it's just a situation that continues for a while in that state. Unlike the son in the room, there's nothing really final about the fact that the person on the train is standing. They could just as easily have been sitting if the train had not been as crowded, but they happened to be standing for the duration of the trip.


The second example is not an example of the きり grammatical construct you are talking about. It's part of a compound noun 付{つ}きっ切{き}り, which means "constant attendance" or "constant supervision".


Hope that helps.


Tuesday, 27 October 2015

grammar - Difference between ば and たら in this example



明日都合がよければきてください.


東京へきたら、ぜひ連絡してください.



Why in the second example we can't replace たら with ば but in the first one we use ば.


Aren't きてください and 連絡してください both requests or is there a difference?



Answer



My impression is that ば presents a vague or hypothetical situation/state, and ら applies to actions and is similar to "when."




明日都合がよければきてください.
If tomorrow happens to be convenient, please come.


東京へきたら、ぜひ連絡してください.
When you come to Tokyo, please contact me without fail.



With those implications, the opposite doesn't make much sense.


"When tomorrow is convenient, please call." The conditional is too strong and confident for the unknown situation.


"If perhaps you come to Tokyo, please contact me without fail." The conditional is too weak, and it is modifying an action.


inorganic chemistry - How is solid titanium(II) oxide an electrical conductor?



Most salts in the solid state are electrical insulators, since the ions are not mobile (e.g. sodium chloride). However, solid titanium(II) oxide, $\ce{TiO (s)}$, is a conductor. How is this so?



Answer



The electron configuration of $\ce{Ti^{2+}}$ is $\mathrm{[Ar]~3d^2~4s^0}$.


$\ce{TiO}$, like e.g. $\ce{FeO}$, $\ce{CoO}$ and $\ce{NiO}$, adopts the rock salt ($\ce{NaCl}$) structure.


Due to the lower nuclear charge of $\ce{Ti}$ its 3d orbitals are less contracted than that of $\ce{Fe}$, $\ce{Co}$ and $\ce{Ni}$ which allows for overlapping of the 3d orbitals and the formation of a metal d band in $\ce{TiO}$. The d electrons of $\ce{Ti^{2+}}$ partially fill this band and lead to electrical conductivity. $\ce{FeO}$, $\ce{CoO}$ and $\ce{NiO}$ on the other hand are electrical insulators.


Note that in this case it is electrons that act as the mobile charge carriers, not the ions.


number - Shisha Umeya?



Who knows one hundred six?


Please cite/link your sources, if possible. At some point at least twenty-four hours from now, I will:




  • Upvote all interesting answers.




  • Accept the best answer.





  • Go on to the next number.





Answer



There are 106 quotations from Tanach in mishnayos Kadashim, according to Jason Kalman, "Building houses on the sand: the analysis of Scripture citation in the Mishnah", Journal for Semitics, ISSN 1013-8471, volume 13, number 2, 2004, pages 186–224. I haven't counted them, myself.


science - Effect of knockout on my soul


I have experienced a knockout two times in the boxing ring during my active fighting career.


At the time I was KO, I was conscious of nothing and then I woke up.



I am interested in knowing what was going on with my soul at that time when I was in KO mode, if you know what I mean.


This has been bothering me for a couple of years.


My trainer told me that the brain "turns off" in this unstable situation and only important systems like breathing, pumping blood and other important systems are turned on and other stuff like cognitive thinking is turned off. But his information was from the medical perspective, so I would like to hear from a religious point of view.




maariv - Why do we say havdala if we already said ata chonantanu?


Based on my question here and the sources given by Double AA here it would seem logical that if ata chonantanu was the original havdala (and that is why we would say it even if we had already heard havdala over wine) then if one said that, they would not be obligated to hear havdala over wine.


Why is this not the case?



Answer



The quoted gemoro (Brachot 33a) says:



א״ל בתחלה קבעוה בתפלה העשירו קבעוה על הכוס הענו חזרו וקבעוה בתפלה והם אמרו המבדיל בתפלה צריך שיבדיל על הכוס At first they fixed havdolo in the prayer. When the people grew richer, they fixed it over a cup (of wine). When the people grew poor again, they fixed it in the prayer. And they said (I assume later when they had wine) someone who says havdolo in prayer, has to make it also over a cup.



Rava (Brachot 33b) explains that this was meant to mirror the model of Kiddush where we recite a blessing of Kiddush in prayer and repeat the Kiddush with wine at home. See also here.


translation - Meaning of sentence -てまでする


I have this sentence from JLPT book which I don't understand: いくら仕事だといっても、体をこわしてまですることないんじゃありませんか?



I get that the sentence is about destroying your health/body when you work too much and when this point is reached (at how much work?) but I don't manage to come up with an acceptable translation.




Monday, 26 October 2015

parashas shoftim - Does Judaism believe in black magic?


What is the opinion of Jewish authorities on Magic, particularly black magic? Traditionally Jews have denied that anything happens outside of the will of God, yet Deuteronomy 18:10 states that these practices do happen. What is going on?




filter design - Convolution with an impulse response does not give the same result as the frequency response




I am trying to design a linear-phase FIR filter with the following frequency and phase responses:


enter image description here



Given its characteristics (peak filter at 1kHz with 9dB gain and Q=7), I got the following IIR biquad coefficients:


$$b_0 = 1.0889938082113808$$ $$b_1 = -1.8806408829603927$$ $$b_2 = 0.80787505079350063$$ $$a_0 = 1$$ $$a_1 = -1.8806408829603927$$ $$a_2 = 0.89686885900488144]$$


I then computed the impulse response of that biquad filter and truncated it to 1024 taps. I got the following filter:


enter image description here


To make the phase of my FIR filter linear, I applied an FFT on its impulse response, I put the imaginary part to 0 and came back to time domain by doing an inverse FFT.


The final taps I got can be found there.




Now, when I plot the frequency/phase responses of this filter using Numpy/Scipy or Matlab, I get exactly the same plot as the one of my expected filter (see figure 1). But, when I apply this filter on a pink noise signal by convolution and measure the transfer function, I get this instead:


enter image description here


I am pretty lost here, I would assume that convolving my noise signal with my filter and measuring the transfer function would give me the same curve as the one I computed theoritically but it seems not to be the case (that is, in my mind, the definition of what convolution does).


Some additional information:



  1. I have verified that the problem does not come from my implementation of the convolution operation, by testing with many different implementations; if you still believe the problem come from there, you can try yourself with the taps I provided.

  2. I trust the software I used to measure the transfer function depicted in the last plot, and anyway I could hear that the transfer function is not the one I expect.


  3. To plot the transfer functions from Python, I used the following code:


    import matplotlib.pyplot as plt

    import numpy as np
    from scipy import signal

    def plot_transfer_function(b, a=1):
    """Plot the frequency and phase response of a digital filter."""
    w, h = signal.freqz(b, a)

    fig = plt.figure()
    plt.title('Digital filter frequency response')


    # Frequency response
    ax1 = fig.add_subplot(211)
    plt.semilogx((w * SAMPLING_RATE) / (2 * np.pi), 20 * np.log10(abs(h)), 'b')
    # Make the plot pretty
    plt.ylabel('Amplitude [dB]', color='b')
    plt.xlabel('Frequency [Hz]')
    plt.axis([20, 20000, -12, 12])
    plt.grid() # show the grid

    # Phase response

    ax2 = fig.add_subplot(212)

    angles = np.unwrap(np.angle(h))
    plt.semilogx((w * SAMPLING_RATE) / (2 * np.pi), np.degrees(angles), '#aa0000')
    # Make the plot pretty
    plt.ylabel('Angle (degrees)', color='#aa0000')
    plt.axis([20, 20000, -180, 180])
    plt.grid()

    fig.axes[0].set_axis_off() # disable main figure axis


    plt.show()

    plot_transfer_function(TAPS) # "TAPS" is an array containing the 1024 taps


So, what is wrong with my reasoning here? Why do I not measure the same frequency/phase response when calculating it and when measuring it after a convolution?




Additional question: for my FIR filter to have linear phase, I thought it should be symmetric (or anti-symmetric). Well, when I plot my 1024 taps, they appear to be pretty symmetric, excepted the first which does not have its equivalent at the end of the impulse response. Why is it so?




purim torah in jest - Why do we not shower every night?



The Gemara in Megillah 7b is clear:



חייב איניש לבסומי בפוריא


A person must smell good in bed




However, I have seen that people are not careful about this. In fact, I have known some Yeshiva students who are incredibly scrupulous in other areas of Halacha go for days without showering! Why has this halacha been left by the wayside?






Answer



They follow the opinion of Hillel (Vayikra Rabba, 34:3), that bathing is merely a mitzva and not an obligation:



הלל הזקן בשעה שהיה נפטר מתלמידיו היה מהלך והולך עמם אמרו לו תלמידיו ר' להיכן אתה הולך אמר להם לעשות מצוה אמרו לו וכי מה מצוה זו אמר להן לרחוץ בבית המרחץ



The Rambam (Hil. Talmud Torah, 3:4) rules that Torah study takes precedence over other mitzvos when those other mitzvos can be performed by other people:




היה לפניו עשיית מצוה ותלמוד תורה אם אפשר למצוה להעשות ע"י אחרים לא יפסיק תלמודו. ואם לאו יעשה המצוה ויחזור לתלמודו



Since there are other people who can shower before bed, yeshiva students need not interrupt their studies to shower.


Further, note the choice of verb conjugation in Rava's statement: לבסומי is not reflexive, so Rava's statement can be fulfilled by spraying air freshener or burning incense while in bed.


shabbat - Shema in Musaf Kedushah - Source and reason


I grew up on the Birnbaum siddur, I admit it. I read the little explanations at the bottom of the page over and over. Later, I bought a set of Artscroll machzorim and used those on Rosh Hashana and Yom Kippur. I never tried to compare notes, but this morning, something struck me.


In musaf on Shabbos, we say a kedusha which is different from that of Shacharis. The Birnbaum says that the insertion of the shema is the result of a 5th century practice by government forces intent on eliminating the statement of hashem's unity of putting "spies" in the shul to ensure than no one said Shema. At the end of davening, when the spies were gone, the Shema was said by being placed in the kedusha. This means that it was a decision made by religious authority to innovate a new text. (that's a recap and extrapolation from the write up on page 394 of the Siddur Hashalem.) While I haven't researched this, I'm assuming that the Birnbaum people didn't make this up from no where.



We say this same form of the kedushah on Yom Kippur in shacharis. The Artscroll machzor explains (page 406-7) that the kedushah in this form reflects a higher level of holiness which we attain usually only at musaf but which we are at in shacharis on Y"K. It also says that the text comes from Pirkei DeRabbi Eliezer (chapter 4, at the end, page 8, here http://www.daat.ac.il/daat/vl/pirkeyeliezer/pirkeyeliezer02.pdf). Though it doesn't give a start date for this practice, the text was written (according to wikipedia) any time from the first to 8th century CE. The inclusion of Shema was then NOT related to spies, but to a totally separate claim to holiness.


The easiest reconciliation of these 2 versions is simply to say that one is wrong so if anyone has a good piece of scholarship which clarifies, then pass it along. Otherwise, I am wondering why there are two diametrically opposed explanations for a text's source.




parshanut torah comment - Why did Avraham take gifts from Pharaoh, but not the King of Sodom?


In Bereshit 12:11-16, we see that Avraham was willing to receive gifts from Pharoah:



11 And it came to pass, when he was come near to enter into Egypt, that he said unto Sarai his wife: 'Behold now, I know that thou art a fair woman to look upon.


12 And it will come to pass, when the Egyptians shall see thee, that they will say: This is his wife; and they will kill me, but thee they will keep alive.


13 Say, I pray thee, thou art my sister; that it may be well with me for thy sake (They will give me gifts. - Rashi), and that my soul may live because of thee.'


14 And it came to pass, that, when Abram was come into Egypt, the Egyptians beheld the woman that she was very fair.



15 And the princes of Pharaoh saw her, and praised her to Pharaoh; and the woman was taken into Pharaoh's house.


16 And he dealt well with Abram for her sake; and he had sheep, and oxen, and he-asses, and men-servants, and maid-servants, and she-asses, and camels.



Yet he refused gifts from the King of Sodom (Bereshit 14:21-24):



21 And the king of Sodom said unto Abram: 'Give me the persons, and take the goods to thyself.'


22 And Abram said to the king of Sodom: 'I have lifted up my hand unto the LORD, God Most High, Maker of heaven and earth,


23 that I will not take a thread nor a shoe-latchet nor aught that is thine, lest thou shouldest say: I have made Abram rich;


24 save only that which the young men have eaten, and the portion of the men which went with me, Aner, Eshcol, and Mamre, let them take their portion.'




Rashi 14:23 explains why Avraham didn't want to take anything from the king of Sodom:



that you should not say, [I have made Abram rich]: The Holy One, blessed be He, promised to make me rich, as it is said (above 12:2): “and I will bless you, etc.”



Why wasn't he worried Pharaoh would say the same thing?



Answer



I heard in the name of the Maharal (in Gur Arye, but I haven't had a chance to check it inside,) that Avram understood that the wealth Hashem had promised him would come through natural means, and that he therefore didn't mind taking gifts from people. But Bera's gifts were awarded to him for distasteful acts, so he understood that those could not be the means Hashem intended for him to gain wealth. So he declined them: if those are not the fulfillment of the Hashem's promise, then he didn't want to take them. (This fits in with Rashi (as one might expect of the Gur Arye): Rashi says he had Hashem's promise in mind when he refused Bera's gifts.)




My kid answered that Avram didn't want Bera to say he had enriched him, but there was little fear of that from Par'o who, being distant, would not hear if Avram became rich [rather than, perhaps, losing his money to bandits on the way home].


And I heard in the name of an irreligious Jew that Avram was unwilling to accept gifts as recompense for doing kindness so as to increase kidush Hashem, whereas that concern was irrelevant in Mitzrayim. (This does not easily fit in with Rashi, who says he didn't want to accept from Bera because of Hashem's promise.)



organic chemistry - Are geminal disubstituted alkenes more stable than their cis/trans isomers?


I know for a fact that cis alkenes are less stable than trans alkenes due to steric repulsions.


But what bugs me is the fact that why systems such as 2-methylprop-1-ene, where I believe steric repulsions are greater than that in cis-but-2-ene, are more stable than its cis and trans counterparts.


I saw this being given in the stability order of alkenes in Solomons and Frhyle. I looked up Morrison and Boyd and it said the same thing. Paula Bruice said otherwise stating trans to be more stable.


Which is the correct order, and why?



Paula Bruice


Paula Bruice Pg 175


Solomons and Frhyle


screenshot Solomons and Fryhle




For reference, free energies of formation:


$$ \begin{array}{c|c} \text{Compound} & \Delta G^{\circ}_{f}\text{ in kJ mol}^{-1} \\\hline \text{2-methylpropene} & 58.1 \\ E\text{-2-butene} & 63.0 \\ Z\text{-2-butene} & 65.9 \\\hline \end{array} $$



Answer



This is a very good question and if popular books give conflicting answers, then it must be reasoned out. Unfortunately, Paula Bruice has given the wrong answer while the other two books have given no explanation for this comparison.


For the answer I assume that you know about hyperconjugation and the various contributing structures it involves. This gives a basic idea of hyperconjugation:



hyperconjucation
Source: tutorcircle.com


Note that on hyperconjugation, the other carbon of the alkene gets a negative charge on it.


If the hyperconjugation structures of 2-methylprop-1-ene and trans-but-2-ene are drawn:


enter image description here enter image description here


you will notice that:



  • $ \ce{C_1} $ of the former has a negative charge on it

  • $ \ce{C_2} $ of the latter has a negative charge on it

  • The latter's methyl group makes the negatve charge less stable due to +I (inductive effect)


  • The former has no such destablizing effect as the carbon containing the negative charge is just connected to hydrogens

  • As all the hyperconjugation structure have this effect applying on them, the net effect cant be ignored for the overall stability


Hence the overall stability of 2-methylprop-1-ene > trans-but-2-ene


mfcc - what is the mel scale?



I am not sure I understand what the Mel Scale is.


Googling doesn't give me various answers. I seem to be getting the same response again and again.


Which would be something like:


"The mel scale reflects how people hear musical tone"


First of all, does the concert pitch has a specific frequency? So why do we even have a scale stating how do people hear it?


I am currently trying to understand how MFCC uses them, and it seems like it maps the frequency to the Mel scale, or there are some filter banks which are applied on the given frames




torah study - Daf Yomi Scheduling for Shabbos, Yom Tov, and Sundays


With the twelfth Siyum HaShas behind us, I was wondering what is the best way for a person to maintain their Daf Yomi schedule on Shabbos, Yom Tov, and Sundays. Is it best to learn at a different time on these days, or perhaps do a double Shiur on Sundays? I am looking for ideas that have worked for others.




Sunday, 25 October 2015

grammar - 「ある」と「ない」は動詞か形容詞か…


「ある」と「ない」はどんな品詞名か教えてください。​​​​​




grammar - What is the し particle and how do you use it?


I understand that obviously every Japanese textbook will go into this topic briefly... but I can never really come to grips with what it means in Japanese. If anyone could link me to a good Japanese dictionary entry about it that would be great (I can't find a good one that explains it)


I am interested in the し particle as used below... 歯は痛いし、歯医者には行きたくないし、困ったよ。



I was wondering if the し particle had anything to do with する/しか/しも.


職場は失うし、妻とは別れるし(で)、彼はひどく元気がない。 Here, it seems like し seems to turn the reasons into some sort of noun phrase because the author has stated you can use で with them.


Knowing the essential underlying meanings behind ので and から helps me to unconsciously decide between them... I kinda have no idea how to do the same with し so... Can anyone enlighten me or link me to somewhere where I could be enlightened on the matter?



Answer



し is used here to create a list, and I'd translate your example sentence as "My tooth hurts, I don't want to go to the dentist... it sucks." (lit: "I'm troubled")


It's sort of like や in that it creates a list, but as I'm thinking about it, し is used more for a list of reasons that culminate in a conclusion stated later in the sentence. I might describe my girlfriend as follows: 頭がいいし、かわいいし、日本語を勉強するし、お互いに話しやすいし、本当に好きだよ。


Here, I'm listing out various reasons I like her. In your example, you're listing out reasons that you're troubled. Hope that helps!


molecular orbital theory - Why is the bond order of CO+ 3.5?


According to my books the bond order of $\ce{CO+}$ is $3.5$. But shouldn't it be $2.5$? On googling this, I found the following answer that is on Stack Exchange but its only talks about the bond length.


I am unable to understand why it is $3.5$ as I am in class 11.



Answer



For a long time it was taught in school and universities that the HOMO of carbon monoxide is anti-bonding. Without more context it was also often taught that the bond order in CO is three, since there are eight electrons in bonding orbitals and two in anti-bonding orbitals. $$\text{Bond order} = \frac12(\text{bonding} - \text{anti-bonding})$$ By assuming that the HOMO is anti-bonding (it is not!) and taking away one electron, the bond order has to increase to 3.5. This is wrong.


When we have a look at the MO diagram, a calculated version can be found here, we know that the HOMO, i.e. 3σ, is a bonding orbital, while the anti-bonding orbital is the 2σ. Upon ionisation, we would indeed remove one bonding electron and therefore the bond order has to decrease to 2.5 as you suggested.
However, it is not that easy. Strictly speaking the below MO scheme is, as well as MO theory itself, an approximation, and only one possible configuration. While we do not have to use resonance structures with MO theory, we have to consider other configurations (analogous to excited states). So naturally the bond order of CO is not strictly 3. And removing an electron does not mean we are removing it from only one orbital, rather than decreasing the electron density. Therefore we cannot accurately predict the bond order with these simple considerations.
Experimental observations and theoretical calculations suggest that the bond indeed becomes stronger when removing an electron. See the linked question and Philipp's answer within for more detail. (Don't look at the other answers, they are as wrong as they could be.)



In short: The bond order of $\ce{CO}$ is not exactly 3 and removing an electron will not increase the bond order to 3.5. In both cases, the observed bond order is probably closer to 2.5, while experiments suggest that the bond is stronger in $\ce{CO+}$.


MO of CO


An orbital with bonding character has no node perpendicular to the bond axis; an orbital with anti-bonding character has at least one node perpendicular to the bond axis (electron density is zero). Strictly speaking there are no non-bonding orbitals.


computer vision - Connecting edges detected by an edge detector


I have a binary image obtained from a canny edge detector. The edges are not nicely detected in the center and I need to join them. The connection of edges is orientation and neighborhood dependent. I need to connect the vertices if they are below a threshold (say less than 5 pixel distance). If my almost linear features are nicely oriented, this threshold should be relaxed. (This is the best case.) image


I tried the Hough transform, but it didn't work for me because I don't have straight lines. Dilation and erosion are also not good; they make the images messier.



The approach I am trying is to first detect vertices and nodes (in MATLAB with bwmorph) and then make leaves as a separate feature. This is done as follows:



  1. Scanning in a 3x3 window, look for neighbors.

  2. Traverse the complete connected object.

  3. Try to fit a line (or maybe a quadratic polynomial).

  4. Check feature-by-feature if it's worth a connection or not.


The implementation is not straightforward since the decision-making part where vertices need to be connected is tricky.




kashrut kosher - Can I eat chocolate melted in a meaty pot and then combined with dairy?


Suppose I'm making some dessert, like cheesecake or ice-cream sundaes, by melting chocolate and pouring it over the dairy dessert. I realize after doing this that the pot I used was fleishig and used within the last 24 hours. Can I still eat my dessert, or did it become a meat-milk mixture because of the pot?




impulse response - White noise vs. delta pulse and Ultraviolet catastrofe


Everybody explains that white noise has all frequencies equally strong. But, this immediately means that



  1. Ultraviolet catastrofe inevitably happens if power > 0 stays constant at any frequency and, what is similarly unacceptable,

  2. White noise is identical to single Dirac impulse since delta pulse is a constant in the Fourier basis). Note that constant is the opposite to the notion of noise.


Is average over time is implied, like you obtain uniform distribution, or what?


Why answers are not satisfactory



Answers say that white noise does not mean that signal spectrum is limited. It means that that power spectrum is flat, which also means that there is no correlation between samples so that it is correlation matrix, which is delta function (and I do not know what is its fourier transform is, which has the infinite spectrum).


I see a several problems with that. At first, the power spectrum is simple a square of the spectrum. If you say that you prevent the Utraviolet catastrophe by cutting all frequencies above some threshold $f_{max},$ you cannot have a flat spectrum anymore.


Secondly, I understand that you can have a mean and variance of a uniform distribution which has value $v$ in $[a,b]$ and 0 outside. But what is a mean and variance of a perfectly flat power spectrum? Ok, mean might be zero if you admit negative frequencies. But you say that variance is $\sigma^2$. How is that?


Lastly, I have determined that rapid changes are less likely in the the limited spectrum signal, which means that samples tend to each other, which means that they are correlated. Ok, might be you say that they are correlated but pink nose does not say if they are positively or negatively correlated, so samples are not correlated in case of pink noise. Ok, this is great. But we have just concluded that pink noise is white (or can be white). Is it right?


I also see Wikipedia saying that white noise can be Gaussian, which means that the samples are normally distributed. This means that they will tend to each other, like in the pink noise.



Answer



The difference between both signals is the phase of the spectral components. The phase of the noise signal is completely random. The phase of the dirac is zero (in case of an dirac at t=0).


Take for example a noise signal, transform it to the frequency domain, change phase to zero, transform back, and you will obtain an approximate dirac.


Sample Matlab code:


x = rand(1000,1)-0.5; %random signal

y = real(ifft(abs(fft(x)))); %abs() removes the phase
plot([x y]);
legend('x','y');

Edit: trying to clear things up


In this example x is a realization of a band limited white noise, as can be seen by plotting the magnitude of its spectrum via plot(abs(x)). The next step is not calculating its autocorrelation function, that would be ifft(fft(x).*conj(fft(x))) and result in a band limited approximativ dirac function. Instead it takes the magnitude, which is effektively setting the phase of the complex spectrum to zero and transforms that signal back into time domain, and the result is also a band limited appromximative dirac function.


The goal of this example is answering this part of the question:



I cannot find any intelligible explanation what makes white noise different from both dirac and resolves the frequency limit.




Noting that the theoretical signals white noise and dirac impulse are not bandlimited, therefore they do not exist in real world. I am just giving a descriptive example using real world approximizations, what features have to be altered to convert a noise signal with a flat amplitude spektrum into an impulse signal.


kanji - Apparently unrelated 音読み?


For most 漢字 with multiple 音読み, there appears to be a fairly reasonable link between the sounds, and fairly minor drift, such as with 聞 being モン or ブン.



Some 漢字, however, appear to have completely unrelated 読み, the prime example being 回 with カイ and エ. If it was just that one it could be readily dismissed as an historical accident, but the カイ/エ 読み is shared with the also visually unrelated 会 and friends.


So the question is; what's going on here?


Update: As l'électeur points out, this might be explained by the size of China, but if so: Why don't more 漢字 have these apparently unrelated 読み?



Answer



Taking up the chance to talk about "Unrelated readings" because I get the chance to talk about both Japan and China's phonologies in the past.


It's well known that even amongst 音読み, there are the types from different Chinese regions and times.


漢音:Hanyin, from the original middle-chinese pronunciations


呉音:Wuyin from SE China (state of Wu)


唐音:Tangyin from Tang China around the late 1500s


慣用音:These are actually Japanese corruptions of Chinese readings, not used anywhere in China. コク for 石 is one example, which was corrupted from ジャク (the approximation of Hakka's pronunciation, shak)



There are others, usually taking name from the Chinese state that they originate from.


General sense


When Japanese first borrowed Chinese character sounds (漢音), Chinese had a slightly different phonology to now. Firstly, /h/ was /φ/ (same sound as ふ nowadays, which never changed). Usually, Chinese's /x/ (pinyin: h) was borrowed as /k/, but sometimes as /w/. Examples of this are 会 (ZH: hui JP: kai, e) and 絵 (ZH: hui JP: e). Tones weren't borrowed at all.


They also copied more closely the ~ao vs ~ou distinctions in Chinese (compare 道 and 豆 ZH: dao, dou JP: dou, tou). Japanese dictionaries kindly list pronunciations of kanji that have changed. Dictionaries tell you that 道's reading of どう actually used to be だう.


There are too many rules to list all of them out. Common ones are those above, and final 〜う instead of ~ng found in Chinese varieties (such as 同{どう} ZH: tong).


Both Japanese and Chinese (taking Chinese as one language) have since changed, but there are enough varieties of Chinese that it's usually clear to see which language / dialect is the divergent one (like how Mandarin has no -p, -t, -k final consonants anymore)


In the purest sense


"Unrelated" on'yomi are almost always going to be 慣用音. 良 has a fair few, such as ら, which sound nothing like the Chinese liang used today. This is because they actually diverged from the Chinese loanwords into something distinctly Japanese, and is also why they're so uncommonly used in actual words (I can't think of any examples of 良 as ら other than in names).


Other reasons


One thing to note is that sometimes the Chinese itself was unclear when Japan borrowed the sounds, even without different languages or bad transliterations. There are kanji that have readings with /m/ initials, and some with /b/ (文聞無望亡 to list a few). These are all taken from the same Chinese regions and time, but people probably couldn't say which it sounded more like, and use both /m/ and /b/ readings these days (and Chinese has all 3 starting with /w/).



So, the reason why kanji are unclear are usually:



  1. Japanese borrowed them badly in the first place because it didn't have the right sounds to say them properly (eg 花{か} ZH: hua)

  2. Japanese borrowed them properly, but then its phonology changed and now doesn't resemble as much (eg 絵{え} from ゑ ZH: hui, said like "hway")

  3. Chinese was in a transitional phase when Japanese borrowed them, so Japan took a few pronunciations all from the same Chinese dialect (eg 聞, read as ぶん and もん)

  4. Japanese borrowed properly, and just corrupted them (eg 良{りょう} as ら)


parshanut torah comment - Shifting subjects and objects in Gen 12:15


There are three statements in Genesis 12:15:



וַיִּרְאוּ אֹתָהּ שָׂרֵי פַרְעֹה וַיְהַלְלוּ אֹתָהּ אֶל פַּרְעֹה וַתֻּקַּח הָאִשָּׁה בֵּית פַּרְעֹה


And Pharaoh's princes saw her, and they praised her to Pharaoh, and the woman was taken to the house of Pharaoh.



(emphases mine)


In the first two statements, the subject is Pharaoh's princes, and the object is "her." In the third statement, the verb is passive, and the object is now "the woman" instead of a pronoun.


Why these two shifts?




Saturday, 24 October 2015

avot patriarch fathers - When did Avraham Avinu become Jewish



Avraham Avinu is often called "the first Jew".


When did he become Jewish. Was it when:




  • He recognized G-d?




  • G-d spoke to him for the first time?





  • Covenant Between The Parts?




  • When G-d changed his name?




  • When he had a circumcision?




  • When Yitzchok was born?





  • When he passed the 10th and final test?




  • Some other event in his life?




Or perhaps he was never Jewish and we just mean that he was the first in what would eventually become the Jewish nation.



Answer




This article from Chabad.org, Was Abraham Jewish? On the Identity of the Pre-Sinai Hebrews, pretty thoroughly discusses this topic.


I'm not sure how to elaborate on it without rewriting the whole article, but after discussing the different times Avraham was chosen by G-d and the Covenants made between G-d and Avraham, one paragraph says:



Accordingly, when we refer to Abraham as the first Jew or convert, it does not mean that he was actually Jewish in the sense that we know today—in the sense of a binding obligation. Rather, he had the technical status of a Noahide, just as any other person of the time (albeit one that was given additional unique commandments such as circumcision, in which he was indeed obligated). It was not until his descendants stood at Mount Sinai and G‑d proclaimed, “You shall be to Me a treasure out of all peoples . . . and you shall be to Me a kingdom of princes and a holy nation,” that we became the Jewish People.



Please read the article for context.


halacha - How far do I have to go to take care of myself?


The mitzvah of V'nishmartem (Devarim 4:15) requires a person to take care of their health (Shulchan Aruch C.M. 427:8, Kitzur Shulchan Aruch 32:1). How far does this go? Do I have to exercise daily? Do I need to be in peak physical condition? Am I required to stay current on nutrition news to follow the healthiest eating and living habits? In short, how far do I have to go?




history - Josephus' Fall of Jerusalem


Is this book commonly accepted in the Jewish world as an accurate description of the events surrounding destruction of the Beit HaMikdash? I'm particularly interested in its portrayal of the behavior of the Jews under siege, since we also have a (damning) Talmudic description of the behavior of the Jews at the time.




book of ruth - What would have happened if Orpah came with?


Boaz tells Ploni that they two are the only possible redeemers. If Orpah had come with, one of them would have married Boaz and the other would be left single and half the land would be unredeemed.


What would have happened if Orpah came with?




halacha - Maaser on Sal Klita


As a new immigrant to Israel I am receiving a little bit of money ( http://www.jewishagency.org/NR/exeres/A2A4F6FE-5CB4-469E-A45C-517CF14D59D5 ) to get started here.


Should I pay maaser on this money? Which income is eligible for maaser?





image processing - What Are the Limitations of a Canny Edge Detector?


Broadly a majority of the literature on edge detection algorithms and applications that uses edge detection, references Canny's edge detector. So much so that it looks like almost "the solution" to edge detection. Certainly, it would do the best job balancing noise and preserving edges.


However, as a simple curiosity, is there an area of concern for Canny's edge detector? or are there areas of applications where Canny will not be best?


In this context, faster implementation is not really concern. The focus of edge detector being good or bad should be the quality and utility of edges generated.


Also, I am really not focusing on implementation specific issues. I am looking for more theoretical limitations or characteristics inherent in the algorithm.



Answer




From my experience, the following points are limitations:



  • The result is binary. You sometimes need a measure of 'how much' the edge qualifies as an edge (e.g. intensity image coming from a Sobel amplitude edge detector)

  • The amount of parameters leads to infinitely tweaking for getting just that little better result.

  • You still need to connect the resulting edges to extract the complete edges that seem so obvious for the human eye+mind.


  • Also due to the gaussian smoothing: the location of the edges might be off, depending on the size of the gaussian kernel.




  • The method has problems with corners and junctions:




    • The gaussian smoothing blurs them out, making them harder to detect (same goes for the edges themself)

    • The corner pixels look in the wrong directions for their neighbors, leaving open ended edges, and missing junctions




This last problem is addressed by the SUSAN method, which connects edges better and also results in nice junctions, as shown by these example figures as given in the linked paper:


Test input image:


Test input image


Results SUSAN:



Results SUSAN


Results Canny:


Results Canny


You can clearly see SUSAN finds the corners and junctions instead of Canny.


gentiles - What is a ger toshav?



I read in the Book of Isaiah (Is. 56:1-8), about the foreigner joining Hashem. I asked my Rabbi briefly about this passage. He explained that the passage is probably neither about a gerut conversion or someone becoming noachide, but something called a 'ger toshav'.


So, I'm asking if some one would like to enlighten me regarding this subject. I'm sorry I can't be more specific in my question, as this is a new concept to me.


Very grateful for any answers.



Answer



In Avodah Zarah 64b, they ask: Who is a "ger toshav"? Whoever accepts upon himself, in front of three friends, not to worship idolatry — these are the words of Rabbi Me'ir. And the rabbis say: Whoever accepts upon himself the seven sins which the sons of Noach accepted upon themselves. And others (i.e. Elisha Acher) say: None of these are a "ger toshav." A "ger toshav" is whoever accepts upon himself all the commandments except not to eat neveilah.


The Rambam (Isurei Biah 14:7) rules like the rabbis. This definition of a "ger toshav" is what we are regular to call a "ben Noach." So according to the halachah, there is no difference between a ger toshav and a ben Noach, but according to the other opinions in the gemara there is. The Rambam there says that he's called a "ger toshav" (lit. resident stranger) because he's allowed to live in Israel with us.


readings - Appending 内 to a company name is read ない or うち?

For example, if I say マイクロソフト内のパートナーシップは強いです, is the 内 here read as うち or ない? Answer 「内」 in the form: 「Proper Noun + 内」 is always read 「ない...