Thursday, 30 April 2015

grammar - 「どこでもある」と「どこにもある」の使い分け


I have come across this sentence:



一九七0年頃までは、どこでも銭湯がありましたが、今は、少なくなりました。



Why does it say どこでも X がある instead of どこにも X がある


I understand that で and に are very similar as they have ties in the past, but I just don't understand the difference in meaning here.



Answer




"で" in どこでも is not the particle "で" meaning "at" or "in". Here, "でも" is something like English "-ever" or "any-" in whatever, anywhere, etc.



  • だれでも whoever

  • だれにでも勝てる I can defeat anyone. (~に勝つ = defeat ~)

  • いつでも whenever

  • いつまででも (lit. until whenever) forever

  • なんでも whatever

  • どこでも (in/at) wherever

  • どこにでも行く go (to) wherever

  • どこへでも行く go (to) wherever


  • どこまででも行く go (to) wherever

  • どこからでもやって来る come from anywhere

  • AとBのどちらでも使える Both A and B are usable.


This で is dropped in negative sentences:



  • ここにはなにもない There is nothing here. (*なんでも is incorrect)

  • だれもいない There is nobody. (*だれでも is incorrect)

  • だれにも勝てない I can defeat no one. (*だれにでも is incorrect)

  • いつも17時には帰れない I can never leave my office at 17. (*いつでも is incorrect)


  • いつまでも子供のままではいられない You can't stay a kid forever. (*いつまででも is incorrect)

  • どこからも電話がかかってこない I get phone calls from nobody. (*どこからでも is incorrect)

  • AとBのどちらも使えない Both A and B are unusable. (* どちらでも is incorrect)


According to this rule, "どこでも銭湯があります", "どこにでも銭湯があります", and "どこにも銭湯がありません" are all correct, while "どこにでも銭湯がありません" is incorrect.


There are always exceptions. The following sentences are correct, because it's semantically positive:



  • いつでも構わない Any time is fine.

  • どこでも問題ない Anywhere is fine.



Can we drop で in positive sentences? It depends.



  • *だれも出来る is incorrect (だれでも出来る is OK)

  • *なにも食べる is incorrect (なんでも食べる is OK)

  • いつも遊んでいる (いつでも is also OK)

  • どこも休日は混雑している (どこでも is also OK)

  • 一緒にどこまでも行こう (どこまででも is also OK)


As for 「どこにでも」, I feel it's acceptable to drop で in positive sentences.


In conclusion, 「昔はどこにも銭湯があった」「昔はどこにでも銭湯があった」「昔はどこでも銭湯があった」 are all OK as long as they're positive sentences. I think there is no considerable nuances between the three.



sources mekorot - Does sorcery/black magic exist today?


The Torah She'bicsav and Torah She'ba'al Peh discuss sorcery/necromancy/witchcraft. Assuming that those activities were actually harnessing some sort of supernatural power in order to perform supernatural activities, do such things exist today?


I am mainly interested in explicit sources discussing this topic or sources that implicitly imply that such powers still exist (and are accessed) in the past thousand years or so.




particle の - General meaning of AとBのC?


Is it (AとB)のC, Aと(BのC), or (AのC)と(BのC) ...?



Answer




It depends on the context.


For example, in the case of 彼と私の娘は、昨年同じ小学校に入学した. When he is a child, it means Aと(BのC). When he is an adult, it means (AのC)と(BのC). When he is the daughter's father and the sentence is 彼と私の娘は、昨年小学校に入学した, it means (AとB)のC.


In the case of 彼と私の娘は、頭が良い, it also could mean the three patterns. If you clearly want to mean (AのC)と(BのC), you should say 彼の娘と私の娘は、頭が良い.


thermodynamics - What is a pure substance?


I found as I was preparing to teach "Introduction to thermodynamics" that there are varying definitions or examples of pure substances. For instance the text book I have to use "Thermodynamics an engineering approach, Cengel and Boles" defines a pure substance as one that has the same chemical composition throughout. Air in the gaseous form is cited as an example. Air in its liquefied form is NOT since it seperates into it's various components.


The Dummies book on Chemistry suggests that sugar can be considered a pure substance as it has the same chemical composition throughout. And water can be considered a pure substance for the same reason.


So would a homogeneous mixture of sugar and water be considered a pure substance? After all, a homogeneous mixture has "identical properties" throughout it's phases.


Yet another definition of a pure substance suggests that any material made of the same kind of atoms is a pure substance. So individual elements in the periodic table and stuff made "purely" of them are pure substances. Other stuff is just homogeneous or heterogeneous mixtures.


So are pure substances (irrespective of whether we view them as elements, compounds or mixtures) just very difficult to break down into their individual components?



Or would the definition of a pure substance change depending on who you speak to (chemists, phycisists, thermodynamicists)?



Answer




"Thermodynamics an engineering approach, Cengel and Boles" defines a pure substance as one that has the same chemical composition throughout.



This is the correct definition of a pure substance. However, air, regardless of phase, is not a pure substance.


All matter is categorized as either a "pure" substance or a mixture. The word "pure" in front of "substance" is unnecessary, since the definition of substance implies purity. A substance is a sample that is chemically uniform in composition. In other words, all particles of that sample are the same chemically (whether they are atoms or molecules or ionic lattices or what have you). Substances cannot be separated into simpler components by any physical process (i.e. without breaking chemical bonds). Mixtures are samples that contain two or more substances. All mixtures can be physically separated, although the means to do so may be neither easy nor practical.


Air is a mixture of nitrogen ($\ce{N2}$), oxygen ($\ce{O2}$), carbon dioxide ($\ce{CO2}$), argon ($\ce{Ar}$), water vapor, and traces of other gases. Each of these gases separately is a substance. Air can be easily (but not in the comfort of your own home) separated into its constituent parts. Cooling air will cause the constituent components to condense out of it at progressively lower temperature: first water vapor, and then $\ce{CO2}$ (195 K), followed by $\ce{Kr}$ (120 K), $\ce{O2}$ and $\ce{CH4}$ (90 K), $\ce{Ar}$ (87 K), $\ce{N2}$, $\ce{Ne}$ (27 K), $\ce{H2}$ (20 K), and $\ce{He}$ (4 K).


As each substance condenses out of air it can be physically separated from the remaining gas, reducing the complexity of the mixture. Each substance, if returned to the gaseous state separate from the original mixture is physically and chemically distinct from the original mixture (or whatever is left of it). Such physical separations do not need to be easy to make air a mixture, they need to be possible.


A pure substance does not exhibit this behavior. When pure water is cooled, it undergoes a phase change to ice, which is physically separable from liquid water. However, the solid and liquid samples are still water. You have not reduced the complexity of the sample, just changed its form. If you allow the separated solid water to melt, it will be physically and chemically indistinguishable from the original water sample. Pure water cannot be separated into other chemically distinct substances without performing a chemical reaction, which means breaking and forming bonds between atoms.



The majority of matter that we interact with in our everyday lives is comprised of mixtures.


We encounter a few pure substances in the kitchen. Table sugar is a single compound (sucrose). So is table salt (sodium chloride), baking soda (sodium bicarbonate), and cream of tartar (potassium bitartrate). Water is a pure substance, so long as it has been purified. Most water that we encounter has other substances dissolved in it.


Gold (as long as it is 24K) is a pure elemental substance. So is diamond (carbon), graphite (also carbon), and the neon in neon lights. All minerals are pure substances, including asbestos. Glass is a pure substance. Most precious stones are pure substances.


halacha - Can you daven with minyan when you have the flu?


Are you allowed to go daven with a minyan when you have the flu or other highly contagious illness? Is it considered potentially damaging someone else's health, or are the chances of someone else getting it from you small enough that that shouldn't be a factor? In addition, can you trust the others members of the minyan falling under "Shluchei Mitzvah Einan Nizokim"?




Wednesday, 29 April 2015

grammar - What is the difference between と, たら and 時【とき】?


First, I came across this sentence using と in a way I've never encountered before.



ピノキオはうそを吐くと、鼻が長くなります。




My translation: When/As Pinocchio tells lies his nose becomes longer.


After a little research and based on the context of the sentence I figured this use of と must mean 'when' or 'as' as opposed to the 'and' meaning but then I started wondering what the difference is between this 'when' and the 時【とき】 'when' and the たら 'when' in terms of usage.



Answer



They could all be translated to 'when' in English but:


AとB in this case indicates that A first happens, then immediately after B happens. This is the case in your example!


たら can have more uncertainty in it, i.e. it can be used to express sentences where you'd use 'if' in English.


I think of とき as 'the time when' or 'everytime when'.


Just offering my two cents here. I am still learning too!:) I'm not good enough to provide the lengthy grammatical replies you usually get on this site, so sorry if it's a bit short. Anyway, at this level I find shorter answers more helpful. Hope you agree:)


number - Shisha Vetish'im?


Who knows ninety-six?


Please cite/link your sources, if possible. At some point at least twenty-four hours from now, I will:




  • Upvote all interesting answers.





  • Accept the best answer.




  • Go on to the next number.





Answer



96 is the Gematria of "Tzav"; the Masoretic note says parshas Tzav has 96 verses. Though I think there's a note that our count has 97 or something like that? Eh close enough ...


grammar - Usage of 合える with verb stems


Occasionally I come across an interesting usage of 合える with a verb stem, mostly when I listen to music. One such example can be found here at approximately 0:42: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=XgSDZfcq_9o


"分かり合えない、あなたと私”. As far as I can guess, this means "we don't understand each other, you and I"(or lit.: our understanding cannot meet). However, since I couldn't find any useful information using Google, I really can't be sure of it.


I would really like to know how common this kind of usage is, and in what situations it would/wouldn't be fitting. Could anybody shed some light on the matter?



Much appreciated :)



Answer



合える is the Potential conjugation of 合う。



Attaching ~ 合う (あう)to the end of a verb stem means to do the action with each other or to do the action mutually with someone else.



(See more examples on the source page)


Attaching 〜合う and 〜合える in this way is pretty common.


To determine whether it would be fitting in a certain situation, a good rule of thumb is to ask “Is the verb something you do to or amongst each other?”


I advise against “with each other”, because for example you don't say 「泳{およ}ぎ合う」 to mean “swim with each other”. (In the rare case that it is used, it means more like “swim amongst each other” as if intermingling.)



A few combinations will need special attention as they have a counterintuitive meaning:



落{お}ち合う



Does not mean “drop each other”, but to “meet up”.




Added:


A Japanese friend who is more knowledgeable than me in grammatical terms told me that what I wanted to say in the “rule of thumb” section is better summed up as: “whether the verb is intransitive (自動詞) or transitive (他動詞)”. 〜合う is only attached to transitive verbs.


A great example they gave was the verb fly, which can be both intransitive (飛{と}ぶ) and transitive (飛ばす). This explains why you generally don't say 「飛び合う」, but you can say 「飛ばし合う」.


everyday chemistry - What is the difference between hand wash and body wash soap?


I do not like body wash always with strong favor. I like hand wash soap to wash my body. Are they difference at all?



Thanks for the comments, so that I add the following information I am really sorry that I posted the question using my phone at my office parking lot right before I went to work this morning, so not much detail was added


To my limited knowledge, Body wash and hard wash soaps are detergent, they both are OK to use on skin. If that is the case, why body wash soap is body wash soap? What I mean is that from the chemistry point of view, what makes body wash soap difference from hand wash soap?




Which personal pronouns and sentence ending particles would an old man use?


I'm somewhat informed on gendered speech in Japanese, however, I have also heard that age may play a part in which pronouns and sentence ending particles you use and can get away with. For instance, a teenage boy is more likely to get away with using slightly effeminate language than a grown man would be. What sort of pronouns (私, 俺, 僕, est.) and sentence ending particles (の, か, かしら, わ, よ, ぞ) would a typical elderly male use (In the standard Tokyo dialect)?



Answer



This is not really an answer, but I would like to draw the attention to the distinction between speech in fictional work and speech in the real world.



In fictional work, there is a set of words (most notably personal pronouns and function words) which are considered to be typical to a certain group of people, regardless of whether the people in the same group in the real world actually use them. It is called a role language (役割語). As dainichi explained, first-person pronoun わし and copula じゃ are part of the role language for old male speakers. So are second-person pronoun お[主]{ぬし} and the use of ~しておる instead of ~している. However, I am pretty sure that few old male people actually say any of these.


My guess is that old male speakers do not have particularly different words from other adult male speakers, but I am not very sure about this part.


signal analysis - Random sampling vs uniform sampling


In this paper of Lustig, he speaks about a something which appears unintuitive: sampling at random may exhibit better performance than sampling uniformly. I tried to understand this starting from page 15 of these slides, but I can't really make sense of anything.


Why, if we take random permutation of frequency coefficients, do we get a better reconstruction in terms of signal similarity? Why does this give better reconstruction, and what's the intuition behind the phenomenon?




halacha - What is the proper length of the Tefilin Shel Rosh straps?


How long are the Tefilin Shel Rosh straps supposed to be? What is the minimum Shiur and what is the maximum?





physical chemistry - Dissociation of water into H+ and OH-: Does the law of mass action hold at nanoscale?


Suppose water under neutral conditions is confined in a virtual spherical nanocontainer with a radius of 25 nm. To calculate the number of hydronium ions, one uses water dissociation constant which is derived from the law of mass action. In this case, considering the temperature at 25°C I come up with a number which is smaller than one.


enter image description here


A logical suggestion here is probability. Is there any limitation to the law of mass action, i.e. does it break down at the nanoscale level and quantum mechanics and thus probability kick in? If yes, is there any boundary to specify things with respect to the size of the system?





candle lighting - Other sources of light to bless Shabbat over


In places were candles are unsafe or prohibited from use, could light emitting diodes with batteries substitute? Closing the circuit would be regarded as work. But so is lighting a candle for any other purpose but the blessing. Could an analogy of kindling a candle be applied to activating the substitute to honor shabbat only?




Tuesday, 28 April 2015

minhag - Splitting up Shacharis between two Chiyuvim


I have Davened in a few Shuls where they have split up Shacharis between two Chiyuvim. (One Davens until Ashrei after Tachanun / One davens from Ashrei until the end.) What is the source for doing so?



Answer




Beur Halacha 132 discusses drawing lots to determine who leads the service and then adds (in my own loose translation):



… and all this is when they can't both lead the service; if they can, and both are acceptable to the congregation, then let them draw lots [only] to determine who leads until "Ashre–Uva l'tziyon" and who leads from there on.



organic chemistry - A few questions about the conditions of the Diels Alder Reactions


I'm attempting to extract the diels alder reaction into a generic reaction and am trying to gain a better understanding of it.


Can a conjugated diene react with another conjugated diene via the diels alder reaction? And is the reaction limited to only dienes or can it be expanded to polyenes?



Does anyone happen to have a link as to the details on hetero diels alder reactions and the structures that can undergo such reactions and limitations on chemical species that can react via this reaction.



Answer



Yes, conjugated dienes can react with other conjugated dienes in Diels-Alder reactions. A well known example of this is the dimerization of cyclopentadiene. All the standard caveats, restrictions, and other considerations still apply, namely:



  1. The diene must not be rotationally locked in such a way that it cannot adopt an s-cis/synperiplanar conformation. As a logical corollary, cyclic dienes that are already locked into the correct s-cis conformation often have lower activation barriers.

  2. The kinetics of the reaction are accelerated by electron-withdrawing substituents on the dienophile and electron-donating substituents on the diene.

  3. The stereochemistry of the major product is highly substrate-dependent. A preference for the endo isomer exists in cases where the dienophile has unsaturated substituents. In those cases, the transition state is stabilized by an overlap of the $\pi$-electron system between said unsaturated substituents and the $\pi$ orbitals of the newly forming double-bond at the back of the diene. (Just as a side note, Carey & Sundberg refer to this as the "Alder rule" in Advanced Organic Chemistry, but I've never seen that term used anywhere else.)


In principle, there's no reason why two conjugated $\pi$-bonds of a polyene cannot react similarly, provided they satisfy the orbital symmetry and conformational requirements and the reaction kinetics are favorable. Even aromatic molecules can undergo Diels-Alder reactions under the right set of conditions (see, for example, the Diels-Alder reaction between benzene and furan via a benzyne intermediate). There are also numerous instances of well-documented Diels-Alder reactions involving heteroatomic dienophiles, alkynes as dienophiles, polymerization reactions, etc.


If you can get your hands on the aforementioned Carey & Sundberg book, they discuss the Diels-Alder reaction at length (including relatively rigorous explanations of the stereospecifity and reaction kinetics via molecular orbital theory). If you're looking for a comprehensive reference, I doubt there's anything superior to the venerable March's Advanced Organic Chemistry. There's a chapter on Diels-Alder reactions (along with virtually every other organic chemistry reaction known to science), as well as a massive list of accumulated primary literature references if further detail is required.



orbitals - How to rationalise with MO theory that CO is a two-electron donor through carbon?


A question I am looking at is as follows:




$\ce{CO}$ is isoelectronic with $\ce{N2}$. Sketch MO diagrams for $\ce{CO}$ and $\ce{N2}$. Point out key differences between the diagrams and use the diagram to explain why $\ce{CO}$ acts as a two-electron donor through carbon rather than through oxygen.



Understandably, the key difference between these molecules is that $\ce{CO}$ is heteronuclear, and thus will have differences in energy between the molecular orbital and the atoms.


But I can't explain why $\ce{CO}$ is a two-electron donor using MO theory, even though I can with Lewis?


Does anyone have any thoughts?


MO of CO


In the above MO diagram, the 5σ is the HOMO. But it is closest in energy to oxygen's 2p orbitals, so why is it centered on carbon?




etymology - Nouns exhibiting vowel fronting


As touched upon in another thread, there are several nouns that exhibit a kind of vowel shift in older forms, where the ending vowel is fronted when the noun is used on its own to become /i/ or /e/, compared to unfronted vowel forms /u/ or /o/ or /a/ when the noun is used in a compound. Examples include:



  • 天: あま vs. あめ (also for 雨)

    • 天照{あまてらす}

    • 雨合羽{あまがっぱ}




  • 上: うわ vs. うえ

    • 上着{うわぎ}



  • 金: かな vs. かね

    • 金槌{かなづち}


    • 金屋{かなや}



  • 神: かむ vs. かみ

    • 神上{かむあ}がる

    • 神所{かむどころ}



  • 黄: く vs. き


    • 黄金{くがね}



  • 口: くつ vs. くち

    • 轡{くつわ} from 口{くつ} + 輪{わ}



  • 木: こ vs. き


    • 木漏{こも}れ日{び}



  • 声: こわ vs. こえ

    • 声色{こわいろ}



  • 手: た vs. て


    • 袂{たもと} from 手{た} + 本{もと}

    • 手折{たお}る



  • 月: つく vs. つき

    • 月読{つくよみ}




  • 火: ほ vs. ひ

    • 炎{ほのお} from 火{ほ}の穂{ほ}

    • 火中{ほなか}



  • 目: ま vs. め

    • 瞬{まばた}き from 目{ま} + 叩{はた}く

    • 瞼{まぶた} from 目{ま} + 蓋{ふた}





Now for the questions.



  1. Does anyone have a list of all nouns known to exhibit this kind of vowel shift?

    • Did all nouns in ancient Japanese or proto-Japanese exhibit this vowel shift?

    • If it were only some nouns, were these nouns categorizable as any clear class of nouns? As an example of a noun class, there are inseparable nouns in Polynesian languages, which generally cover things like body parts and spiritually important terms, much like many of the Japanese vowel-shift nouns that I'm aware of.




  2. Is there any clear membership in 甲類 or 乙類 for these nouns, as compared to similar nouns that don't exhibit any vowel shift? One example is 上 kami1 with the 甲類 み and that doesn't have any kamu form, vs. 神 kami2 with the 乙類 み and that does have a kamu form.

  3. What research is there into this phenomenon? Are there any specific titles or authors that cover this?

    • One theory I've read about (possibly in Shibatani's The Languages of Japan, which I've since misplaced) is that these nouns, when used in standalone contexts, were appended with the now-obsolete Old Japanese い, an emphatic nominalizing particle. Over time, this fused with the preceding vowel to produce vowel fronting. As evidence for this, the term カムイ appears in Ainu as a possible borrowing from pre-Old Japanese, before any such sound fusion, clearly manifesting a distinct む and a distinct い sound.

    • Another theory that I've only come up with on my own is that this might be somehow related to verb conjugations, where the 連用形{れんようけい} always ends in either /i/ or /e/. Verb stems, when used as nouns, always use the 連用形, at least in modern Japanese. Perhaps this is a reflection of some phonetic constraint or requirement in an ancient stage of the language, that is also reflected in these standalone noun forms?






usage - What do I do when I encounter "Written Japanese"?


I have read in grammar dictionaries some words/phrases that are labelled as "Written Japanese" and should not be used in normal speech.


Let's take for example the sentence-ending こと indicating a command:



プールサイドを走らないこと。 "Do not run on the pool deck"


(This was taken from A Dictionary of Intermediate Japanese Grammar and it's labelled as "Written Japanese".)




What I want to know is what happens to "Written Japanese" when:




  1. I read it silently




  2. I read it aloud to myself




  3. I read it to someone else





For the above, do I read it as it is written or do I convert it to a "Spoken Japanese" equivalent?



Answer



"Written Japanese" doesn't mean "forms that can only be expressed in written form". It means "forms that are generally used in writing rather than speech".


So there's no need to replace anything on the fly as you read it. You read it as written, whether it's 走らないこと, 走るべからず, な走りそ, whatever. It doesn't matter if it would be weird as a conversational utterance... because it isn't one. It's "written Japanese" that you happen to be reading out loud.


Update 12/2: Actually, let me add one caveat: If you are reading Classical Japanese, or most pre-WWII, then "reading it as written" doesn't mean the same thing as it does for modern Japanese. For example, 思はぬ is pronounced as if it were 思わぬ. This is called historical kana orthography (歴史的仮名遣) and it is related to the particles は, へ and を being pronounced わ, え, and お. But it even in this case, you don't change the actual words -- you wouldn't change 思はぬ to 思わない, for example. It's just that the rules for pronouncing certain kana in certain contexts are different.


matlab - FFT Zero Padding - Amplitude Change


I'm just learning about Fourier Transforms and as an input I'm using a WAV file (Matlab) and taking one channel of it and performing a quick Fourier transform. I've zero padded the input, as I've been told that it gives a better frequency resolution. I've done this and I see an identical looking graph apart from that the magnitude has changed. Could somebody please explain to me why the magnitude has decreased and is their any linearity to how it changes?


I assume that the frequencies will be similar to those before the zero padding but just be a better fit?




Answer



Zero padding is a useful interpolation tool using sinc function (or kernel). I will below explain it in 3 parts. First: what is DFT; Second: Zero-padding; Third: Usage of zero-padding.


(a) $\textbf{What is DFT}$: By taking a DFT of a data set we are mapping the data values from the current discrete domain (many case happens to be time example in audio signals; it can also be spatial co-ordinates as for images) to a discrete frequency domain. With the transform doing this mapping being a matrix (hence linear) which is always full-rank the mapping is always invertible without any loss in information content. Example we can take idft of the obatined dft and get back the same data we started with again or no loss!


Why go to this other domain (so called transform (here frequency) domain) of representing the same data? Well, (a real life note) when we are trying to make decisions we want to see the facts clear in front of us. We don't want unnecessary facts and likes and dislikes to wander in our mind. It similar in signal processing. When we want to analyze data we want to see the data in such a domain of representation where we have,



  • concentration of information only in localized points in that domain

  • the domain gives some sort of a physical interpretation to the data we have (this is a super plus point)


Thus it is clear by using DFT we want see if we can gain from the above two. Of course, if the data has one of the columns of the DFT matrix itself we have gained the maximum out of the DFT domain based representation i.e only one point in the mapped domain values will have a non-zero value ideally. Now suppose the signal is not representable using any one of the columns of the DFT matrix. Then DFT will try to represent the data by a minimal number of mixture of the columns of the DFT matrix i.e only few of the mapped domain values will have a non-zero values. So, which type of data will do this: those which share some characteristics with the DFT matrix columns such as are periodic. $A\ moral$: hence DFT is good to represent periodic data as it gives a minimal representation based on number of non-zeros values (magnitude captures the contribution of each column in making up the original domain data).


(b)$\textbf{ Zero-padding}$: In zero-padding we have first padded zeros to the data in the original domain and then take the new zero-padded signal's DFT. This means by zero-padding we have increased the number of columns in the DFT matrix (with the matrix now also being orthogonal) with no new data in the original domain being added. With this we can hope to see more in deep how much the new added columns contribute in representing the time-domain signal. Note what we earlier say with N-point DFT will also see the same at those N points in a subsequent 2N-point DFT of the same data. So the peak magnitude will not change. (Considering we are not normalizing the DFT matrix). Now when we take the iDFT normalization factor comes into picture and we have to normalize by 1/2N this time to get the same data back instead of by N in the previous case and not pick only N points in the 2N point data. The zero-padding in time-domain can also be interpreted as sinc interpolation in the DFT domain to get the contribution of the newly introduced columns in the 2N-pont DFT. This needs a separate post of detail description. But you can see it easily by drawing the signal and seeing the zero-padded signal as a multiplication of the original assumed to be 2N length signal with a rectangular window which results in convolution in the frequency domain with a sinc function. It may be clear now that we are not increasing frequency resolution by zero-padding i.e we are not resolving two frequencies close by but we are filling new frequencies between the existing N-point DFT frequencies and finding their contributions for making the signal. Frequency resolution can be increased only by sampling the data more finely or taking new data points which is in our hand only if we are an experimenter.



(c) $\textbf{Applications of zero-padding}$: It is used as a frequency domain interpolation tool for getting the side lobe structure for filters. Also it is used to interpolate (or re-sampling) in time domain by zero-padding in frequency domain. Zero-padding in frequency domain needs care so as to preserve the original phase of the signal.


Hope this post is clear. May have a lot of redundancy if you already know much of it.


midrash - What is meant by the 974 "worlds" that were "created and destroyed"?


Midrash Tehillim 90:13 says that God created and destroyed 974 worlds before this one. What exactly does that mean?


I've heard it used in defense of a modern understanding of evolution and cosmology but don't really get why God would create a universe and destroy it 600 times, then create a universe and destroy it a couple hundred more times with our solar system, and then create it and destroy it another couple hundred times with slight variations of animal life. And then do the one final creation of everything again. I don't grasp the logic behind that interpretation.


So what exactly does it mean to create and destroy 974 worlds?




organic chemistry - Order of nomenclature precedence among these functional groups


The order of precedence for functional groups I have so far is:



  1. carboxylic acid

  2. ester


  3. amide

  4. aldehyde

  5. ketone

  6. alcohol

  7. amine

  8. multiple bonds

  9. ether

  10. organic halide


I'm pretty confident that from 1 to 7, I have the order of precedence right. But from 8 onwards, I'm not too sure. Could someone help verify that the list I've got is right or help me correct it?





hashkafah philosophy - Does someone who dies very young have a soulmate?


As discussed in this question, the Talmud tells us that 40 days before someone is born, a heavenly voice calls out "This person is destined for so-and-so".


Not sure if anyone can answer this, but I'm wondering if this same 'calling out' for the soul happens to souls who are destined to be in a body that dies very young and never even has the opportunity to marry. (My father had a brother that died within the first month, and an uncle of mine had a daughter that died after a couple of months.)




word choice - How indistinguishable is blue from green really?


ao seems to be used very much interchangeably for both blue and green. Why is that so, and how does 緑 midori play into this?



Answer



Beside some of the historical examples mentioned by Derek, there is also an inherent nuance that separates 青 from 'blue', as it is commonly understood in Western culture (and similarly, albeit less strongly, for 緑 and 'green'). This is not unique to Japanese-English and probably applicable to any pairs of sufficiently separate cultures: colours are, for a large part, an artificial construct and there is only limited reasons two people should pick the same arbitrary frontier along the green-blue continuum (or red-orange, or yellow-green etc). I recommend digging in Google Scholar for more on that, but it's worth mentioning that there is much debate on what the causes and extent of these differences between cultures are.


Anyway, back to 青/緑: leaving aside the fact that the past 100 years of intermingling with Western culture have no doubt influenced the native Japanese perception of these colours, there is still a real difference between the range of what a Japanese will call 青い and a Westerner call 'blue' (talking about pure colours here, not objects' traditional colours, which might be tied to historical reasons). 'Blue' for 青 and 'green' for 緑 are just approximations (as are probably most other native colour translations).


A diagram might be the easiest way to put it. Assuming that horizontal line represents the true continuum of hues from blue to green, and the vertical bars, the separation between the two colours in Japanese and English respectively, you'd have:


    青い        |  緑

ーーーーーーーーーーーーー
Blue  |  Green

As a result, when talking about something on the far left (say, the sky) or the far right (say, fresh verdure), both English and Japanese words agree quite well. If you pick things that are in that middle area where the definitions do not match, you get these quizzical looks and people arguing "what do you mean green? it's obviously blue!" etc.


Sorry for the longwinded answer to what is a fairly basic/obvious point... ;-)


digital filters - Exponential weighted moving average time constant


I think it is an easy question but I am stuck.


I want to derive that $$ \alpha = -e^{\frac{-T}{\tau}}\,. $$


Can someone provide me with an answer?


[EDIT] Sorry guys, this was really a senseless question. Here are some more informations. The differential equation of the EWMA: $$y(n)=\alpha\cdot x(n)+(1-\alpha)y(n-1)$$ and the corresponding frequency magnitude response: $$H_E(z)=\frac{\alpha}{1-(1-\alpha)z^{-1}}$$ and in the frequency domain for $\omega_s=1 \rightarrow T=1 $ : $$H_E(\omega)=\frac{\alpha}{\sqrt{1-2(1-\alpha)\cos(\omega)+(1-\alpha)^2}}$$ $$\tau=\frac{1}{2\pi\omega_{3dB}}$$


Hence $$H_E(\omega_{3dB})=\frac{\alpha}{\sqrt{1-2(1-\alpha)\cos(\omega_{3dB})+(1-\alpha)^2}}\overset!=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\text.$$


I'm looking for $\alpha$, given an $\omega_{3dB}$.



Answer



If I understood you correctly, you want to compute the value of $\alpha$ that results in a specified 3dB cut-off frequency for an exponentially weighted moving average filter. If you square your last equation, you get


$$\frac{\alpha^2}{1-2(1-\alpha)\cos(\omega_c)+(1-\alpha)^2}=\frac12\tag{1}$$



which can be rearranged into the following quadratic equation:


$$\alpha^2+2\alpha(1-\cos(\omega_c))-2(1-\cos(\omega_c))=0\tag{2}$$


with the positive solution


$$\alpha = \cos(\omega_c)-1+\sqrt{\cos^2(\omega_c)-4\cos(\omega_c)+3}\tag{3} $$


So, e.g., for a desired cut-off frequency $\omega_c=0.2\pi$, you obtain from $(3)$ a value of $\alpha=0.455886780102867$. The figure below shows the magnitude of the frequency response of the resulting exponentially weighted moving average filter, from which you can see that the desired cut-off frequency is achieved.


enter image description here


EDIT: The formula for $\alpha$ in your question should actually be


$$\alpha=1-e^{-T/\tau},\qquad \tau=1/\Omega_c\tag{4}$$


Note that unlike $\omega_c$ in Eq. $(3)$, $\Omega_c$ in Eq. $(4)$ is not normalized by the sampling frequency. So we have $-T/\tau=-\Omega_cT=-\omega_c$.


Eq. $(4)$ is an approximation, and it comes from applying the impulse invariant transformation to the continuous-time transfer function



$$H(s)=\frac{1}{1+s\tau}\tag{5}$$


which has a 3dB cut-off frequency $\omega_c=1/\tau$. Applying the impulse invariant transformation to $(5)$ gives


$$H(z)=\frac{T}{\tau}\frac{1}{1-e^{-T/\tau}z^{-1}}\tag{6}$$


Comparing the denominator of $(6)$ with the denominator of the discrete-time transfer function of an EWMA filter


$$H(z)=\frac{\alpha}{1-(1-\alpha)z^{-1}}\tag{7}$$


results in the given formula. Note, however, that this is only an approximation. Especially for cut-off frequencies close to Nyquist, the error of formula $(4)$ becomes relatively large.


nuances - Difference between 完成させる and 完成する (transitive usage only)


Again, I am not referring to the intransitive usage of 完成する.



Examples



文を完成させなさい。
文を完成しなさい。


夢を実現させた。
夢を実現した。



From my understanding of the grammar, させる implies that you could be making other people help you along as well, but I'm not sure, it seems like in the example sentences there shouldn't be much nuance differences.




Monday, 27 April 2015

experimental chemistry - Uncertainty Equations Confusion


I am confused about the uncertainty equations calculations.


If I have the equation X1 * Y1 = X2 * Y2 and I want to find the uncertainty of X1 , I convert the equation to X1 = (X2 * Y2)/(Y1) . Now, I would know how to calculate the uncertainty if it was a straight division or multiplication uncertainty but this equation is both. How do I go about calculating the uncertainty if the equation contains both multiplication and division? Do I just do the multiplication uncertainty first and then the division uncertainty?


Thanks any advice is appreciated.




inorganic chemistry - About the nomenclature: manganate or manganite?


I am a bit confused about the correct name of $\mathrm{LaMnO}_3$. Is it lanthanium manganate or lanthanum manganite?


I was assuming that since $\mathrm{SrTiO}_3$ is called strontium titanate, $\mathrm{LaMnO}_3$ would then be called lanthanium manganate, but I got confused when I heard a collegue referring to it as manganite and after reading a wikiepdia article on $\mathrm{La}_x\mathrm{Sr}_{1-x}\mathrm{MnO}_3$ where they also used the term manganite.


Which is the correct form, or are they simply interchangeable?



Answer



Let's go down the ladder. $\ce{KMnO4}$ is permanganate, Mn(VII). $\ce{K2MnO4}$ is manganate, Mn(VI). $\ce{K4MnO4}$ is manganite, Mn(IV). $\ce{LaMnO3}$ is called both manganate and manganite, but Mn(III). In a proper world it should be lower than that manganite. They are pedagogically both wrong if it is La(III).



http://dictionary.sensagent.com/potassium%20manganite/en-en/


Manganese oxidation state nomenclature is a real world mess. Drawing nomenclature parallels to Cl(VII) and downward is not valid. Drawing nomenclature parallels to titanium is poor, for Ti(IV) is the highest common oxidation state. $\ce{SrO + TiO2}$ gives $\ce{SrTiO3}$, properly called titanate, for it is Ti(IV) on both sides.


Organic had the same problem. The highest valence carbocation was tricoordinate, hence a carbonium ion. Magic Acid gave $\ce{CH5^+}$. Carbonium ions were renamed carbenium ions to general confusion. Then, $\ce{CH6^{2+}}$. Organic dropped the ball with direction of optical rotation versus geometric left and right. It was flat out stupid designating E ("trans") and Z ("cis") olefins. The designation should have been abstract rather than language-originated.


organic chemistry - Relative rate of hydrolysis of the carbon chlorine bond in thioethers and ethers


I am solving problems based on rates of hydrolysis of compounds but I don't have a general approach to such questions.



Which of the following compounds undergoes hydrolysis faster than the second under comparable conditions? It may be acid catalysed or base catalysed hydrolysis but the conditions must remain the same for each pair.


Compounds



In my view since oxygen is more electronegative than sulfur, hence hydrolysis should be easier for second. But I am not sure about it.


see part 2 here


see part 3 here



Answer




This is a classic case of neighboring group participation. The hydrolysis of the thioether is significantly faster because the sulfur can displace the chlorine to give a three member ring with a sulfur in it. The ring is quite reactive and will easily be opened by water.


enter image description here


For reference, you can also look at a compound like mustard gas. It has the same functional groups and is so reactive that is a war gas.


halacha - Was the korban pesach eaten only when satiated?


Kohanim were to eat kobanot only when satiated. Does that apply to the korban pesach? Was the korban pesach eaten only when satiated?



Answer



The Rambam says in Hilchot Korbon Pesach, Chapter 8, Law 3:



ג. מצוה מן המובחר לאכול בשר הפסח אכילת שובע לפיכך אם הקריב שלמי חגיגה בארבעה עשר אוכל מהן תחילה ואח"כ אוכל בשר הפסח כדי לשבוע ממנו ואם לא אכל אלא כזית יצא ידי חובתו וכן אכילת בשר פסח שני בלילי חמשה עשר לחדש אייר מצות עשה שנאמר בו על מצות ומרורים יאכלוהו:


Halacha 3 The optimum manner of performing the mitzvah is to partake of the Paschal sacrifice when one is already sated. Therefore if one sacrificed festive peace-offerings on the fourteenth of Nisan, one should partake of them first and then partake of the meat of the Paschal sacrifice to be satiated from the festive offering. Even if one does not eat more than an olive-size portion, he fulfills his obligation. Similarly, partaking of the second Paschal sacrifice on the fifteenth of the month of Iyar is a positive commandment, as stated: "Eat it with matzot and bitter herbs."




filters - What is the meaning of half window functions?


In fig. 4 on p. 4 of the paper Extracting the frequencies of the pinna spectral notches in measured head related impulse responses (J. Acoust. Soc. Am. 118, 2005 ), a half Hann window is used (Hann window for positive time, zero for negative time). What is its meaning?



Answer



When a signal frame is acquired, for instance triggered by a threshold, the useful data may start at time $0$. And some further data might be detrimental to the analysis of the very first instants of measurement. So it is customary to apply a window on the signal, to select the first time samples.


Traditional windows are unimodal, symmetric, positive, and apodized. So if you apply one of them to the data, it will strongly attenuate signals amplitudes around time zero. Unless the window is flat (or rectangular). But the latter is discontinuous at the right end. Unless the data is assumed null at negative time (in which case multiplying by any window won't change anything), symmetric windows are sensitive.


The half-Hann window is a very ad-hoc way to get a simple decreasing function from $1$ to $0$, keeping the left-most values untouched, and smoothly rejecting stuff above some limit (here 1.6 ms).



Half-window Hann data


I can see no direct interpretation pertaining to a relationship with linear-phase filters. However, a remote relationship: Hann windows can be implemented in a frequency domain, and yield nice trade-off in the design (Hilbert Transform and Windowing).


history - How did the Ten Martyrs actually die?


On Yom Kippur and Tisha B'av we read about the Ten Martyrs who were gathered and killed by Emperor Hadrian to atone for the Sale of Yosef HaTzadik.


In addition to the idea that the Ten Martyrs didn't live at the same time, the Talmud records the deaths of at least some of the Ten Martyrs in a very different manner (I remember learning about the deaths of some of the Rabbis, and assume that the rest are also recorded). According to the Talmud each Rabbi was individually found guilty of a crime (such as teaching Torah or giving Semicha) and executed.


So, if we assume that the poet was taking some poetic license and the deaths of the Ten Martyrs didn't happen exactly as described (i.e. they weren't all gathered together and then killed at one time). How did they actually die?


Where in the Talmud (or other sources from the same time period) are those deaths recorded and what crime did the Rabbis commit? How were they actually killed? If there are conflicting accounts in other places, please mention them.


I'm setting up a community wiki answer in order to try and get a complete answer in one place.




halacha - Origin of wearing tallit with two corners in front and two in back?


As referenced here, the earliest source I've found for wearing one's tallit with two corners/tzitziyot in front and two back is Ba'al HaItur (c. mid-1100s). But, I'm left wondering where Ba'al HaItur brought this concept from — a concept that later posqim codified (e.g. Shulhhan Arukh, see above link).


In short, upon which source or tradition did Ba'al HaItur found his statement that one should wear one's tallit with two corners/tzitziyot in front and two in back?



Answer




The בית יוסף in או"ח סימן ח quotes not only the בעל העיטור.


He also quotes the רוקח who brings a Medrash on the Pasuk in אז ישיר that states והמים להם חומה the water behind them was warned not to harm them as they would be wearing 2 ציצית behind them as well as the knot of their תפילין.


The בית יוסף also bring the הגהות מיימון at the end of the Rambam's הל' ציצית who quotes a ירושלמי that a child is not obligated to be taught about ציצית unless he can keep 2 in front and 2 behind.


We do not seem to have this Yerushalmi - but a Yerushalmi and a Medrash are early sources. (Besides for Mishna and Chumah you can't really get earlier sources.)


Multiple Pitch Accents


I tried using an anki plugin (https://ankiweb.net/shared/info/932119536) to display the pitch accent of words I'm learning. Some of the words I tried entering showed multiple possibilities for the same word. For example, it shows that 二つ rises on た, but may or may not drop つ. Its the same with 三つ. 夜間 can either start high and drop after や, or rise on か.


I am looking for the "officially correct" accent of Tokyo Japanese. I saw an official pitch-accent book by NHK somewhere. I'm thinking about something like that.


So my question is, do some words really have more than one possible accent? I know the accent can be modified for any word by the situation, emotion, etc..., but will an official pitch-accent dictionary list multiple accents. The plugin I used does it automatically (although it claims they originated from NHK) so I'm worried there could be errors.


Lastly, I do not plan to memorize the pitch-accent for every single word in Japanese. I'm only using this to get the basics.


I know that was off topic, but I thought I should add it in for the sake of those who pop up out of nowhere to criticize study habits:)




Answer



I have a copy of the 新明解日本語アクセント辞典 dictionary (my detailed review of it) somewhere and I remember seeing multiple entries for some of the words.


While I have looked up a few words in it and also utilized Japanese electronic dictionaries that have audio samples for certain words, overall I've found that I learn more about pitches from paying careful attention when listening to things like podcasts and other media. However, if you were literally trying to get every one of your words to have correct pitch, I think the above book could come in handy.


When you hear a common word you think you might use yourself (i.e. 英語), you can try and repeat what you just heard, or rewind and re-listen to hear the exact pitch pattern used.


If you are serious about learning Japanese pitch accent, you might want to learn some related rules like how pitch of certain words changes when they are in combination with others, or how a high accent can effect subsequent word(s). Also, learning the common pitch patterns also helps you narrow down what to hear for (for example, you will never hear high-low-high in a word, as far as I know).


Also, regarding your comment that pitches can change based on emotion - I feel that while there can be a change in emphasis, loudness, or relative pitches, the overall pattern doesn't change that much, even if someone is agitated or upset.


Sunday, 26 April 2015

conversion to judaism - When did Rus bring a korban?



(Inspired by this answer.)


The gemarah in krisus [8b-9a] discusses the requirement for a convert to bring a korban (sacrifice) to enter into the community. If this is the case, how could Rus have converted in Moav or along the road to eretz yisroel (as is discussed by the commentaries)? Wouldn't she have needed to wait until she arrived at the mishkan (Tabernacle) in eretz yisroel to bring her korban and complete the geirus (formal conversion) process?




halacha theory - Will reading Questions and Answers on Mi Yodeya gain a Jew entrance into Olam Haba?




"One who learns Halachos every day is a Ben Olam Haba" (Babylonian Talmud Niddah 73a)



If a Jew reads the halachic questions and answers on this forum everyday, does that guarantee he or she will gain automatic entrance into the (pleasant) Afterlife?




grammar - Problems with は and が


Consider:



[A] 猫好きだ



To me this means [A']"I like cats."



Contrast this to:



[B] 猫好きだ



To me this means [B']"I like cats (among other animals)"


I based my understanding of [B] from Derek Schaab's answer to "What is the difference between “に” and “には”?":



You'll see that while in the first sentence there is only one scope, the second actually has two:



(私【わたし】は)彼【かれ】と会【あ】わなかった。




  • Scope (implied): I

  • Statement: Didn't meet with him.


(私【わたし】は)彼【かれ】とは会【あ】わなかった。



  • Outer scope (implied): I

  • Inner scope (explicit): with him

  • Statement: Didn't meet.




Now as for what effect this has, the は often adds a hint of comparison or contrast, as repecmps mentioned. While both of the above sentences translate to, "I didn't meet with him," the second hints that although you didn't meet with him, you may have met with someone else.



So I deduced that は in [B] can perform that disambiguative role.




Now [A] can be interpreted to mean "I like cats" because of the implicit first person as in (私は)猫が好きだ


Now let's make 私 explicit:



[C]私は猫が好きだ - [C']"I like cats"




Now it is explicit that I am doing the liking.


Now reconsider [B]猫は好きだ:


Based on [C], I have another way to interpret [B]:


So now 猫は好きだ can mean [B'']"The cat likes (an unspecified object)"




(Questions) What is going on? Who is doing the liking and who is being liked in each case? Are [B'] and [B''] both valid? What am I doing and understanding wrong? If there is indeed ambiguity, how can I resolve it?


EDIT:


Can I resolve it by introducing another は element? E.g.



私は猫は好きです。 "I(thematic) like cats(disambiguated/anaphoric)"




Is it acceptable to have two はs in a sentence as above?



Answer



私は猫が好きだ means I like cats.


私は猫は好きだ has the same meaning and it's absolutely possible.


But in the second case you are putting emphasis on what you like for whatever reason: maybe you are going to talk then about cats, or you want to remark that you like a specific cat (私はこの猫は好きだ), or want to focus attention on cats, etc.


The same emphasis can be put on other subjects marked with が.



ドアが開いています。
このドアは開いています。




Direct object can be marked with は instead of を for the same reason.


translation - What is the difference between それでいい and それがいい here?


As I understand it, それでいい means 'it is fine like this' and それがいい means 'this is fine', but what is the protagonist trying to convey here by first using それでいい and then correcting himself to それがいい?


Background: This is the main character's internal dialogue. A girl (who appears to be his 憧れ{あこがれ}の人 from the same school) steps onto the bus he is on, and sparks this monologue, part of it reproduced below:



もしかしたら違う{ちがう}世界に住んでるのかもしれない。
たまたま見えているだけで、手で触れよう{ふれよう}とすればかき消えて{きえて}しまいそうな──だから触って{さわって}はいけない、関わって{かかわって}はいけない。
近寄るともままならない。

そんなバカげた妄想{もうそう}すら浮かべたく{うかべたく}なるほど、彼女の存在{そんざい}は僕にとって、いい意味で異質{いしつ}であり、遠い存在だった。
僕に出来ることは、声をかけることではなく、ただただ、こうやって見守るだけだった。
と言っても、別に指をくわえてる訳{わけ}じゃない。
むしろ、この距離{きょり}がいいんだと思ってる。
きっと成績{せいせき}も優秀{ゆうしゅう}で、性格もいいんだろう。
彼女の日常{にちじょう}の中に、僕なんかが関わる余地{よち}はどこにもない。
そして僕自身、関わりたいとは思わない。
凄すぎて{すごすぎて}家には飾れない{かざれない}絵画を見ている気持ち、に近いかもしれなかった。
だから、校内で彼女の姿を探そうなんて思わない。
知り合いになりたいなんて、夢{ゆめ}に見たこともない。

同じバスに乗ってくるかどうか。
ただそれだけを気にかけて、会えた時はその偶然を素直に喜ぶ。
それでいい。
いや。
それが、いい。
……こんな気持ちは多分、そんなに特別なことじゃないんだろう。
憧れて、そして憧れるだけで終わる感情。
おそらく、誰にでもあることなんだろう。
そして、いつかは忘れてしまう思い出なんだろうな、きっと……。




Some attempt at a free translation:



Rather, I think this distance is good. She's sure to have great grades and a good personality. There's no space for me anywhere in her daily life. And I myself even don't think that I want to have something to do with her.


It's as if I'm looking at a painting I cannot place in my home as it's too wonderful -- or something close to that. Therefore, I'm not going to spend my time searching for her at school. I haven't even dreamt of being acquaintances with her.


The only worry I have is whether or not she'll ride the same bus with me. When I do meet her by chance, I can be glad without reservation.


It's fine like this. No, I mean, this is good. (???)


These feelings are probably nothing special. Feelings of aspiration that are nothing more. Perhaps everyone has them. And later, they'll become memories that will sometime be forgotten.




Answer



With de you're saying "that way/option is fine (too)". With ga you're saying "that's the way you like/want it, that's your first choice" .



コーヒーにしようと思った。
I was thinking of ordering a coffee.
あっ、それがいいね。
Oh, that's just what I want (too).


紅茶?コーヒー?どっちがいい。
Tea? Coffee? What do you want?
紅茶でいい。
The tea is fine.
...meaning (something else would pr be better, but if I have to choose) between those two options, I'll go for the tea.


number - Sheloshim?


Who knows thirty?


Please cite/link your sources, if possible. After about one business day, I will:





  • Upvote all interesting answers.




  • Accept the best answer.




  • Go on to the next number.






Answer



At 30 years one attains full strength (Avot 5:25)


words - Why refer to Isaac Luria as the Arizal, and not Arizatzal?


One of the common ways to refer to the R' Isaac Luria is "the Arizal". I understand this to mean, The Ari, zecher L'bracha (may he be mentioned/remembered for blessing).


However, one usually refers to a Tzaddik (Righteous person) as ZaTZaL, zecher Tzaddik L'bracha.


Why don't we mention that the Ari was a tzaddik when calling him the Arizal?




Answer



I suspect that it's a result of standards changing over time and the R' Luria's popular title being nailed down before they changed.


I seem to recall various sources referring to, e.g., the Rambam as "Rambamzal" or "Ram Bemazal." Perhaps back in the days of the Rambam's immediate successors, "Zal" was simply the popular suffix for deceased luminaries, and since then, at some point, "Zatzal" became popular for this purpose.


Source: impressions from what I've read plus conjecture (weak, I know).


kashrut kosher - Can Sefardim eat meat in the homes of Ashkenazim?


In light of the details found in answers to this question, which suggest that neither Chassidish nor glatt nor non-glatt Ashkenazi meat is halachically acceptable for Sefardim, would there be any leniency for a Sefardi to eat meat in the home of an Ashkenazi? Presumably, the Ashkenazi would not be serving Beit Yosef meat, since--according to details in the first link above--that meat would not be kosher for the Ashkenazi himself (at least if he held to the glatt standard, and possibly also if he did not).*



Are there any kashrus standards for meat that would certainly be acceptable to both Ashkenazim and Sefardim in the stricter (i.e., ~glatt-eating) groups?


(*I've encountered both opinions on whether both glatt and non-glatt Ashkenazim may eat beit yosef meat. CYLOR if it applies to you)



Answer



Rav Ovadiah Yosef (Yabiah Omer 5; YD 3) relies on the heter of R' Shmuel Abohav (D'var Shmuel ch.320). He says that if you do not actually know if the piece of meat you are eating is "chalak" or not, (of course you know the hechsher is definitely not "chalak" but that doesn't matter here) then you can eat it at an Ashkenazi home; especially if it is a seudas mitzvah.


Ashkenazi meat processors do not remove the better meat and throw it out! They just allow for the lenient meat to be included in the food offered. Therefore, no one knows if this steak from the package is from an extra smooth lunged cow or from one where the Ashkenazi Rabbi allowed for certain innocent lung issues that a Sefardi would not accept.


So it becomes a doubt of a doubt. The halachic term for this is a s'fek s'feka; or double doubt.


1) Maybe this piece is from a Sefardi type accepted cow?


2) Maybe the halachah is actually lenient like the Ashkenazim say it is!


The only way to make this case a problem would be if the Ashkenazi host tells the Sefardi: "I slaughtered this cow myself and saw in the lung certain issues that the Beis Yosef forbids but we Ashkenazim eat all day."


However, if its just a random piece of Ashkenazi meat in a package, then it falls under the double doubt system.



Due to this double doubt, R' Ovadiah Yosef allows Sefardim to eat meat at the home of Ashkenazim.


I hope this helps. :)


grammar - Correct translation of こともない in this sentence


Just before the quoted passage, the narrator says a whistling going "Don!" happens at the same time as he stumbles and ends up stooped. Then:



もちろん、いくら昔の話でも発車のベルは「ドン!」などとは鳴らないし、発車のベルが人を突き飛ばすこともない。



My attempted translation:




Of course, though this happened a long time ago, it couldn't be possible that the bell would go “Don!” and send someone flying.



Here I assume こともない means "it's not possible/the case that..." Is this correct?



Answer



「~こともない」 is made of 「~ことはない」(don't ever~~) + 「も」(either).
「~ことはない」 is the negation of 「~ことがある」(occasionally do~~).


Compare:
ベルが人を突き飛ばすことがある。-- The bell occasionally/sometimes pushes people away.
ベルが人を突き飛ばすことはない。-- The bell wouldn't ever push people away.
ベルが人を突き飛ばすこともない。-- The bell wouldn't ever push people away, either. / Nor would it ever push people away.




「ドン!」などとは鳴らないし、発車のベルが人を突き飛ばすこともない



「~~ないし、~~もない」 means "neither ~~ nor ~~".


"The bell would never go 'bump!', nor would it ever push people away."


words - The meaning of Tzadik


I am having difficulty in understand the meaning of Tzadik. Maimonides says "One whose merit surpasses his iniquity is a tzadik". I have trouble in understanding this sentence. Can someone explain the meaning of the word, what Maimonides means by this sentence? Also how does one become a Tzadik?



Answer



The statement of Maimonides to which you refer is from his Yad Hachazaka, Repentence [or: Return] chapter 3. There he writes (in my own loose translation):



Everyone has merits and sins. Someone whose merits are more than his sins is a tzadik. Someone whose sins are more than his merits is a rasha. Half and half, he's a benoni [=middle person].


So, too, the country: If all her denizens' merits are more than their sins, she is a tzadik. If their sins are more, she's a rasha. And so with the world as a whole....


This balance is not according to the count of the merits and sins, but according to their 'weight': some merits balance out many sins... and some sins balance out many merits.... And they are weighed according only to the mind of God, who knows how to weigh them correctly.




How to become a tzadik, you ask? Do what God wants, and avoid doing what he doesn't want.


stability - Why all objects do not melt and liquefy when heated suficiently?


Certain objects such as metals, glass, plastic, sugar etc. melt when heated above a certain temperature but other materials such as a piece of wood, paper, a piece of rock etc. do not. Why is that?




grammar - Unsure about this usage of か


I recently encountered this sentence:




床には血痕が残っている。かなり時間が経つのか血が固まっている。



I believe I understand that the second part is saying the blood is dry (or has hardened) because quite some time has passed. I'm not sure what the か after 経つの is doing -- is the speaker not quite sure if that's the right explanation (something like, "The blood has hardened, perhaps because a lot of time has passed")?



Answer



Your explanation is right.


The speaker is not quite sure if that's the right explanation (something like, "The blood has hardened, perhaps because a lot of time has passed").


The grammar you are looking for is defined in this page, which says:



疑いの気持ちで推定する意を表す




names - 孫悟飯 - Songohan, why non-Japanese say it comes from "gohan = meal/cooked rice"?



As a French I've always heard that Songohan's name comes from gohan meaning meal/cooked rice. The English Wiki says the same and even mentions ご飯.


But I don't understand why, since the names in the family are like this:




  • 孫悟空 Songokū




  • 孫悟飯 Songohan





  • 孫悟天 Songoten




So it seems only the last kanji changes between the characters, and since 飯 alone already means meal/cooked rice, and 悟飯 alone doesn't mean anything, why do we focus on gohan and not only han to explain the name of the character?




EDIT: after reading your answers, I realized my mistake was to read 飯 alone as han. That's why I didn't understand people saying "the name means meal because of go + han" since to me han alone already meant meal.


I'm sure noone understands what I mean but thank you, it's clear now.




wavelet - How to calculate CWT shannon entropy?


I am trying to calculate shannon entropy of CWT. I am not sure if I am doing it right. Assume that $W(a_i,t), i=1;2;...;M$ is a set of wavelet coefficients. The Shannon wavelet entropy is calculated by:
$E=-\sum_{i=1}^{M}d_i log(d_i)$ $\rightarrow$ where $d_i=\frac{|W(a_i,t)|}{\sum_{j=1}^{M}W(a_j,t)}$

I am confused how to calculate $E$. for example I have a coefficient matrix with size of $M\times N$, $M$ is scales number and $N$ is time segments. first I have to calulate $d_i$, this is my main problem. this is the wavelet coefficient matrix :
$W_{M\times N} = \begin{pmatrix} w_{a_1,1} & w_{a_1,2} & \cdots & w_{a_1,N} \\ w_{a_2,1} & w_{a_2,2} & \cdots & w_{a_2,N} \\ \vdots & \vdots & \ddots & \vdots \\ w_{a_M,1} & w_{a_M,2} & \cdots & w_{a_M,N} \end{pmatrix}$


hmm i am pretty sure i am wrong, can anyone help? for example tell me how can i calculate $d_4$?
Here I have right a little Matlab script to calculate shannon entropy of CWT.
Is it right or wrong? and what should I do?


 [M,N]=size(coeffs);
for js=1:M
Ej(js)=sum(abs(coeffs(js,:)));
end;
Etot=sum(Ej);

Pj=Ej./Etot;
%shannon entropy
shan_entr=-sum(Pj.*log(Pj));

Answer



Yes. Your code does compute the same thing as the formula from the paper.


organic chemistry - Ortho-effect in substituted aromatic acids and bases


2-methylaniline  2-methylbenzoic acid



When comparing o,m,p-toluidine basicities, the ortho effect is believed to explain why o-toluidine is weaker. But when comparing o,m,p-toluic acid basicities, the ortho effect is stated as a reason why o-toluic acid is stronger acid. I was told that the ortho effect is a phenomenon in which an ortho- group causes steric hindrance, forcing the $\ce{-COOH}$, $\ce{-NH2}$ or some other bulky group to move out of the plane, inhibiting resonance. Then, if the ortho effect inhibits resonance, why is o-toluic acid the strongest and o-toluidine the weakest?


Where am I going wrong in my understanding of the ortho effect?



Answer



I'd like to throw a tentative explanation for the ortho effect into the ring:


ortho effect


In the molecules in question, an interaction between the protons of the methyl group and the lone pair of the amine nitrogen and the negative charge on the carboxylate, respectively, can be assumed.


In the first case, the electron density on the N atom is (slightly) reduced and thus the basicity of o-toluidine.


In the latter case, a similar interaction provides additional stabilisation of the carboxylate. As a result, o-toluic acid is more acidic than the isomers.


Saturday, 25 April 2015

$2pi$ periodicity of discrete-time Fourier transform



In my signals and systems course, we have learned that the discrete-time Fourier transform is $2\pi$ periodic, but the continuous-time Fourier transform is not periodic in general. For reference, we are using the following definitions of each transform:


Continuous-Time:


$$ x(t) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} X(j\omega) e^{j\omega t} \, d\omega \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ X(j\omega) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} x(t) e^{-j\omega t} \, dt $$


Discrete-Time:


$$ x[n] = \int_{\langle 2\pi \rangle} X(e^{j\omega}) e^{j\omega n} \, d\omega \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ X(e^{j\omega}) = \sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty} x[n] e^{-j\omega n} $$


I'm searching for some intuition as for why the DTFT is periodic, but the CTFT is not. In class, my instructor presented the following argument: for a discrete-time signal,


$$ e^{j\omega n} = e^{j\omega(n + 2\pi)} $$


and thus any $x[n]$ can be expressed as a sum of individually $2\pi$ periodic functions. However, I don't see why that argument only applies to discrete-time signals - I feel as if it also works for continuous-time signals.


Any someone explain?




health safety shmira - Things that halacha prohibits because of danger


What are things brought down in Halacha that we do not do because of danger?


Although we cannot define the resultant danger in terms of medical science, we accept and adhere faithfully to our Sages' warning that eating fish and meat together is a danger (Pesachim 76b).



Answer




Here's a list of things that are fobidden, according to the Kitzur Shulchan Aruch




Kitzur Shulchan Aruch 4:2 - Not urinating when one has the urge


Kitzur Shulchan Aruch 6:5 - Not pouring out water in homes next to where a person died


Kitzur Shulchan Aruch 32:17 - Drinking very cold water when tired


Kitzur Shulchan Aruch 33:




  • 1: Eating meat with fish or fowl, even if one just cooked them together





  • 3: Sweat except from the face. Puting money in one's mouth




  • 4: Swallowing one's saliva after smelling delicious food




  • 5: Drinking water that was left uncovered




  • 6: Eating food or beverages that were under a bed that was slept on.





  • 7: Walking under a shaky wall, on a rickety bridge, walking alone at night, sleeping alone in a room, drinking water from rivers at night, putting one's mouth on a water spout to drink




  • 9: Eating food that is disgusting




  • 11: Chopping down fruit trees unless the wood is worth more than the fruit, or it's preventing other fruit trees from growing.





  • 12: Putting a non-sealed cup/bottle of hot water on one's stomach




  • 13: Walking through a fast flowing river if the water is higher than one's waist




  • 14: Mentioning potential trouble that could befall one





Kitzur Shulchan Aruch 161:20 - Cutting of Polish plaits


Kitzur Shulchan Aruch 177:




  • 6: After cleaning the corpse (Tahara): leaving the corpse on the cleaning table or turning the cleaning table upside down




  • 7: Kissing children that have died, or holding the corpse's hand and asking to be taken with them





Kitzur Shulchan Aruch 199:13 - Leaving a freshly dug grave open overnight


organic chemistry - Boiling point of vodka


What is the boiling point of vodka?


I have found the boiling point of ethanol, ~173 (degrees) F.


However, I am unable to find the boiling point of vodka. I found some information on it, but I do not trust the source.



Answer



Vodka is a solution of water and ethanol.



  • Water boils at 100 °C

  • Ethanol boils at 78.37 °C



A mixture of both liquids will start boiling close to the boiling point of ethanol (otherwise distillation wouldn't work).


The lowest boiling temperature is a mixture of:



  • 95.63 mass-% ethanol

  • 4.37 mass-% water


which boils at 78.2 °C.


Read more about this effect at: Azeotrope There is also a picture of a phase diagram there.


image processing - Which domain used for denoising additive and multiplicative noises


I want to know what is the difference between additive noise, multiplicative noise.. In what domain these noises are handled to remove?


I am interested particularly in image dataset


Does different domains are used in case of satellite imaging where noise due to reflection of frequencies is statistically independent?




physical chemistry - Why does gas particle velocity affect rate of effusion?


I understand why smaller particles have more velocity, but I don't understand what velocity has to do with rate of effusion:


My reasoning is thus:





  1. Pressure is the number of impacts of particles in a given period of time.




  2. If He and Ar are both in balloons at, say, 1.5 atm, both gasses have the same average Kinetic energy but He is moving faster (because it's smaller). Simple enough.




  3. If both gasses are subject to the same pressure, they have the same number of impacts over a given area over a given period in time.




  4. This should mean that each gas has an equal number of particles approaching a hole over a given period of time.





  5. If a hole is big enough for both particles to fit through, the rate of effusion should be the same, since the same number of particles are approaching the exit hole.




For an analogy to explain my thinking ... if you have two lanes of cars going through a checkpoint, one has 30 cars per minute at 50 miles per hour and one has 30 cars per minute at 30 miles per hour, the resulting number of cars through the checkpoint should still be 30 cars per minute in each lane, regardless of their velocity.


My book (and professor, and Wikipedia...) say that it is the higher velocity of He particles which cause the faster rate of effusion; however, from my reasoning, that doesn't make sense except with small enough holes where the size of the particles would have an effect, i.e. the holes are very small in size and He could fit through but Ar could not, or there are simply more holes that He could fit through.


But Graham's law is referring to pinholes, which should be large enough for either atom to fit through.


So why does velocity affect rate of effusion?



Answer




Your point 1 is mistaken (or incomplete) $$P=\frac{F}{A}=\frac1A\frac{\Delta p}{\Delta t}=\frac1A\times\frac{2nmv}{\Delta t}$$


This is assuming all particles hit perpendicularly (you can always modify this for all colissions by taking the average component of velocity in the perpendicular direction).


So, pressure is proportional to number of impacts, mass, and velocity. Pressure is not simply "number of impacts", rather it is a combination of number of impacts with other stuff. Since the energies are equal, we can say that $v\propto m^{-\frac12}$, and we get $P\propto n m^{\frac12}$. P is also the same, so $n\propto\frac1{\sqrt m}\propto v$.


Thus, when avg KE and pressure are the same, rate of diffusion is inversely proportional to square root of mass.


convolution - Reduce Signal Size to Compare Them


I have multiple experiments and each of them produce several ($k$ for example) binary signals; some artificial example next:binary signal



I have a metric to compare experiment results but I need vectors of equal size to do it.


The problem is that signal length can differ from one experiment to another so I need to reduce the signal dimension somehow.


What I tried/ideas:



  1. Calculate area under each signal. Result is vector of dimension $k$. The problem is that this method cannot differentiate signals with the same area.

  2. Split signal on $m$ bins and calculate an area in each bin. Result is a vector of dimension $k \times m$.

    1. Take Fourier series coefficients. Result is vector of dimension $(a+b)\times k$. The problem is that the spectrum is too large and Fourier cannot work nice (am I correct?)

    2. Some wavelet transforms (like Haar for example). But I don't understand how to do it correctly.





I will be grateful for advices or any method that can help me.




halacha - For how long has the Bracha on nerot Shabbat been around?


When did the Bracha on nerot Shabbat come into play? I know that the Mishna mentions generally the mitzva mid'rabanan to light a light on Shabbos. But when did klal yisrael begin saying the Bracha?





grammar - What does the sentence structure AでもB mean in this song?


The song in question can be found here. For example:




いっぽんでもニンジン



While I do know that でも means 'but', I also know that most particles have multiple meanings.


Since 'but' wouldn't make much sense as a translation here, I am confident that でも is used here to mean something else. That's what my question is about.


What does the sentence structure AでもB mean as it is used in the song?



Answer



The でも in the song is conditional/hypothetical "even if" (indicating 逆接の仮定条件), rather than the conjunction (接続詞) でも, "but", which usually comes at the beginning of a sentence.


The でも here consists of で (the continuative form (連用形) of the copula だ) + binding particle も.


So 「AでもB(だ/です)」 means "(It's) B, even if it's A."




1本でもニンジン lit. (It's) ninjin, even if one.
→ It's called [ni]{2}njin, even if there's one piece (of carrot).


2足でもサンダル lit. (They're) sandaru, even if two pairs.
→ You call them [san]{3}daru, even if you've got two pairs (of sandals).





Examples of this でも:




  • でも行きます。 I'll go even if it's rainy.


  • 難しい仕事でもやります。 I'll do even if it's a difficult task.

  • 2個100円。3個でも100円。 Two for 100 yen. It'd still be 100 yen even if you bought three.



inorganic chemistry - How can the electronic structure of pentaaquanitrosyliron be explained?



The magnetic moment of $\ce{[Fe(H2O)5NO]^2+}$ is 3.87 Bohr magneton, which implies that there are 3 unpaired electrons. Since iron is in $+1$ oxidation state (due to charge transfer with nitrosyl group), it's electronic configuration is $[\ce{Ar}]\ \mathrm{3d^7}$. Having 3 unpaired electron is only possible if the 4th and 5th electron enter the higher energy orbital $\mathrm{e_g}$ (crystal field theory). The $\mathrm{t_{2g}}$ or the lower energy orbital has 5 electrons. Why do the 4th and 5th electron enter $\mathrm{e_g}$ despite a strong field ligand (nitrosyl group) being present?




Friday, 24 April 2015

what's the pass band ripple and stop band attenuation of a digital filter?


Hi i'm a beginner in signal processing i want to know what'sthe pass band ripple and stop band attenuation of a digital filter ? Thanks.




Answer



I hope the plot below helps answer your question. Typically I have seen the "passband ripple" and "stopband attenuation" expressed in dB as shown in the picture translating the magnitude of the ripples to dB using $20log_{10}$ as shown. So the passband ripple is the amount of variation in the amplitude, within the designated passband of the filter, and stop band attenuation is the minimum attenuation level with the designated rejection band of the filter.


enter image description here


Here is a design example showing proper use of the ripple and rejection, along with common techniques used to get a first estimate of the number of taps (in an FIR) that will be needed to achieve the desired specifications. These estimators have been detailed in other posts under the topic of "How many taps do I need...".


enter image description here


grammar - Can placements of adverbs be altered freely?



I'm curious if there is any difference in nuance between these two sentences:



  1. 彼は少なくとも週に一度車を洗う。

  2. 彼は週に少なくとも一度車を洗う。


I'm aware that grammatically speaking both are 100% right, but this question is not targeted at this issue.



Answer



Your sentence 1 is ambiguous with respect to the scope of 少なくとも:



彼は[少なくとも週に一度]車を洗う

'He washes his car at least once a week.'


彼は少なくとも[週に一度車を洗う]
'He at least washes his car one a week. (He also changes the motor oil once a month.)'



The first meaning is the same one as your setence 2, but the second meaning cannot be expressed by sentence 2.


In general, the position of an adverb often gives different possibility for its scope.


shabbat - Where did "shabat shalom" come from?


What is the source for the greeting "שבת שלום"?


Where is it earliest attested in print?


What does it mean?



Answer



It's at least as old as the Sh'la (around 1600), according to Taame Haminhagim, kuntres acharon 94 to paragraph 396, which says in the Sh'la's name, via the Baer Hetev OC 307:2: "Someone visiting his friend on Shabas should not say, e.g., 'good morning' as on a weekday, but rather 'shabas shalom' or 'shabas tov', to fulfill 'zachor es yom hashabas'."


It may, of course, be older; perhaps someone else has more info.


physical chemistry - Why don't the electrons move through the electrolyte (instead of the circuit) in a galvanic cell?


I was learning about galvanic cells and I had a problem understanding why electrons do not travel through the electrolyte solutions themselves, instead preferring to travel through metals. Can electrons travel through an electrolytic solution?



Imagine a galvanic cell, without the wiring between the two electrodes and instead we only have the salt bridge. Won't the electrons (although it is very unfavorable to happen) travel through the salt bridge and the solutions? In other terms will the transformation of the electrodes occur?



Answer



Not in water. Free electron in water is really unfavorable, so no significant concentration of them can be generated chemically, and it almost immediately reduces water itself to hydrogen (but I heard rumors about generation of solvated electrons in water in very special experiment with short half-life)


In liquid $\ce{NH_3}$, however, solvated electrons can occur, so self-discharge of galvanic cells with $\ce{NH_3}$-based electrolyte may occur through travel of electrons via electrolyte.


tefilla - Does G-d only hear one language?


I'm a little confused by Rambam Hil. Tefilla 1:4.



Consequently, when someone would pray, he would be limited in his ability to request his needs or to praise the Holy One, blessed be He, in Hebrew, unless other languages were mixed in with it. When Ezra and his court saw this, they established eighteen blessings in sequence.



Is this saying that G-d only hears Hebrew?



If so, wouldn't this be limiting G-d? What if someone's tongue were cut off, what if he were in captivity and his mouth were shut by his captor? Does G-d not know the intent of our hearts?



Answer



God knows the thoughts of man. That is not the issue here. I believe the Rambam is discussing something else. There is a Gemara in Shabbos (12b) which says as follows:


R. Judah said, One should never petition for his needs in Aramaic.


The Rishonim are bothered by the reason for this. The Rosh (1250-1328) in Berachos (2:2) writes that this is an issue unique to Aramaic, because it is not a nice language. The question is why. Ma'adanei Yom Tov on the spot explains that this is because Aramaic isn't its own language, but rather a distortion of Hebrew. He quotes a Rambam to this effect as well. Therefore Aramaic is not normally an acceptable language for prayer - not because it is difficult for God to understand it, but because it is not considered respectable.


If you look carefully at this Rambam, it seems that he is addressing precisely this issue. He is saying that they were not praying in one language but in a big jumble of many languages. In fact his exact words are:



כֵיוָן שֶׁהָיָה מְדַבֵּר, אֵינוֹ יָכוֹל לְדַבֵּר כָּל צְרָכָיו בְּלָשׁוֹן אַחַת אֶלָּא בְּשִׁבּוּשׁ,‏
Once he would speak, he couldn't speak out all his needs in one language except with distortions.




This is the reason they established a standard wording, and once they were doing so, what better language to set it to than Hebrew? But of course in truth one may pray in any language, as long as it is a proper language.


tefilla - Tachanun on 7 Adar


According to those who don't say tachanun on the seventh of Adar (referenced here, here, here, here page 3 among others) as it is traditionally considered Moshe Rabbeinu's yahrzeit, and as such, some don't say it, are there any implications regarding other parts of davening often affected by not saying tachanun? For example, do we say the series of yehi ratzons after the Torah reading which are often connected to tachanun (as per "The Ashkenazim are accustomed to say “Yehi Ratzon” while the Torah is being rolled and covered, except on days that Tachanun is not recited (see Piskei Teshuvot 147:7).) Do we say tachanun on the mincha of the 6th of Adar?


Are there different 'levels' of omission of tachanun depending on the reason (such as overt holiday, explicitly stated simcha, known yahrzeit, traditionally accepted date of yahrzeit) which have different consequences in the rest of davening?




readings - Appending 内 to a company name is read ない or うち?

For example, if I say マイクロソフト内のパートナーシップは強いです, is the 内 here read as うち or ない? Answer 「内」 in the form: 「Proper Noun + 内」 is always read 「ない...