purim - Mishloach Manot must be "ready to eat" - from whose perspective?

From here:

Every adult is required to send on the day of Purim at least two ready to eat food items to at least one friend.

Is this requirement dependent on the sender or the recipient?

In other words, if the recipient cannot eat the food sent to him, has the sender fulfilled his obligation?

• 
  

  For example, if the recipient is allergic to peanuts, and the Mishloach Manot consists of peanuts, has the sender fulfilled his obligation (since the food was ready to eat). Or, has the sender not fulfilled his obligation, because the food cannot be eaten by the recipient, and one of the reasons for Mishloach Manot is to ensure everyone has something to eat to celebrate the holiday.

  
  



• 
  

  What if the sender is allergic to peanuts?

  
  


• 
  

  What if the sender and the recipient have different standards of Kashrut, and the recipient doesn't eat something that the sender sent him (although the sender himself does eat it).

  
  


• 
  

  What if the two items cannot be eaten together. For example, a block of 6 hour cheese and a piece of meat?

  
  

This may possibly indicate that the obligation is indeed dependent on the recipient, although one might argue that in this case, it is no good because it was never received, not because the recipient wasn't able to consume it:

If one sends Mishloach Manot to another individual and the recipient is not home and does not receive it until after Purim, that gift can not be considered as Mishloach Manot.