I was reading about Karaite Judaism and it lists a number of reasons, some which I thought were compelling, for rejecting the Oral Law.
For example,
Joshua 8, 34–8, 35 states:
After that, he [Joshua] read all the words of the Torah, the Blessing and the Curse, according to all that is written in the Torah scroll. There was not a word of all that Moses had commanded that Joshua failed to read in the presence of the entire assembly of Israel, and the women, and the little ones, and the strangers that walked among them.
If Joshua read every command that Moses had commanded, then presumably there would be no room for the existence of non-written commands that would form an Oral Law.
How would you reconcile this passage with the existence of an Oral Law?
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