I know there are issues of formulation and industrial processing that make it advantageous to produce many amine containing drugs as their salts rather than as freebases. And if giving the drug intravenously, the increased water solubility is clearly an advantage. But if giving orally, is there not sufficient HCl in the stomach to have this occur in vivo? Is it just that some of these drugs are too non polar to even go into solution in the stomach acid? Or do we just need to avoid neutralizing too much of the stomach acid with a drug not intended for that purpose?
Subscribe to:
Post Comments (Atom)
-
Sulfur reacts with sodium hydroxide in the following way: 3S+6NaOH⟶2NaX2S+NaX2SOX3+3HX2O It is a disproportionation reactio...
-
I have never before heard/read about something as a sp5 hybridization. Today, Henry Rzepa's blog post made me aware of the existance...
-
I'm trying to remove noise from an audio file. This audio file contains speech as well as constant pink noise. I know that I have to use...
-
As you know the Morlet wavelet function is given by: 1√πfbe−t2fbej2πfc The Fourier transform of...
No comments:
Post a Comment