Tuesday 30 June 2015

organic chemistry - Why can syn-periplanar E2 elimination happen in molecules like vinyl bromides but seemingly not in other molecules?


E2 eliminations occur when the leaving group and the proton are in the anti-periplanar conformation not syn-periplanar. This is beyond a merely a preference as leads to E2 reactions being stereoselective. However, when it comes to vinyl bromides for example (involving a double bond) the reaction can occur in the Z- and E- isomers (i.e both syn-periplanar and anti-periplanar). How can this be the case?



Answer




Elimination from vinyl halides occurs faster when the halide and proton have a trans relationship. When the halide and proton are located on the same side of the double bond (cis), the elimination to form an alkyne is much slower. The faster elimination from the trans arrangement is consistent with a preferred anti-periplanar arrangement in the E2 reaction.


The fact that elimination still occurs, albeit at a slower rate, when the groups being eliminated are arranged cis to one another suggests that a different mechanism is involved in the "cis" case. Two possible mechanistic alternatives are



  • cis elimination from a higher energy (higher energy, therefore less preferred, slower) syn-periplanar conformation, or

  • an E1CB mechanism where the proton is removed in a first step and a carbanion is generated, and this is followed by halide ejection in a second step.


Experiments in analogous molecules suggest that the E1CB pathway is most often followed in "cis" elimination from vinyl halides.


etymology - Does every kanji come from a Chinese character? If so, where can I find the origins of a kanji?


I know that kanji are borrowed from Chinese characters but are all of them borrowed?


As a Chinese native speaker, I am wondering the origins of modern kanjis. Most of them are exactly same as the Chinese counterpart, others are simplified versions of Chinese characters (like 聴 is a simplification of 聽 and 図 a simplification of 圖) and I know that this is due to the reform after WWII. But there are some kanji that I just can't figure out which hanzi they originate from. For example, 転 and 込. The former seems to come from 運 or 轉 but I'm not sure. Maybe I'm completely wrong.


Are 転 and 込 kanjis that native Japanese made up? Not based on a hanzi? But after seeing this post, this is not very possible. Is there a way I can find from which hanzis did these kanjis originate?



Answer



Yes, there are a few kanji that were invented purely by Japanese people. Examples are listed in 和製漢字. Some kanji were reverse-imported to Chinese (see: Japanese-coined CJKV characters used outside Japanese). But I believe there are also many Chinese-origin kanji that are in use only in Japan because they have fallen out of use elsewhere. So not all kanji that are unfamiliar to you are Japanese-coined.


Wiktionary has the information about the etymology of most kanji (although I don't know how much they are credible).




  • 込 is a 和製漢字 and is included in the above list. (Wiktionary)

  • 転 is a simplified version of 轉. (Wiktoinary)


sources mekorot - Ba'al Shem Tov, King and Nation


Rabbi David Aaron said that the Ba’al Shem Tov says in Parshas Yisro, והעולם הזה צורך גבוהה - This world is of great heavenly need.” כי אין מלך בלא עם - “For there is no King without a Nation. Go alephbeta.org - time duration 3:58


Where is the source for this?




grammar - の (no) vs ~i for colors, can they be used indistinctly?


There is this title of a manga called "Ao no Exorcist". Is this exactly the same as Aoi Exorcist? can they be used indistinctly or there is a nuance or something?



Answer



の is a linking particle that has a wide variety of meanings, and 青のエクソシスト (literally "exorcist of blue") can potentially refer to various things.



  • exorcist who is somehow related to blue or symbolized as blue

  • exorcist who belongs to a group somehow related to blue

  • exorcist who has a title/license related to blue



In this case, this exorcist uses special blue flame to defeat enemies, so it's used in the first sense. Similar examples include 鋼の錬金術師 ("alchemist of steel"), 愛の戦士 ("warrior of love"), 自由の女神 (Statue of Liberty; literally "goddess of liberty") etc.


青いエクソシスト ("blue exorcist") usually just means someone whose skin or uniform is blue. It may also mean "an inexperienced exorcist" (see the last definition on jisho).


halacha - Loshon hara to a therapist


Is saying things that would otherwise be considered loshon hara permitted in the context of mental health therapy?



I am not familiar with the details of therapeutic schools, but I understand that some are predicated on an idea of speaking "freely" and exhaustively about the topics of therapeutic interest. Are there opinions that allow all speech within these contexts, understanding that the goal is the improvement of health and possibly the preservation of life?




Origins of Hakafoth on Simchas Torah


When did this minhag begin? Where? and with who, and why is it almost all of Klal Yisroel who do it today? Is there any other "kabbalistic" minhag like this (well L'cha Dodi comes to mind).



Answer



According to this article found on the RCE's website, written by a certain רב ישראל פינחס טירנואר, the minhag of Hakafot began with the Arizal. The author supplies a supporting quote on page 6 of the article from R. Chaim Vital's Shaar HaKavanot, in the introduction to Drushei Chag Sukkot, where R. Vital describes how the Arizal would perform Hakafot.


halacha - More Maaser and Tax Math


Let's say your income before taxes and contributions was $1,111, and your tax rate is 10%. Ordinarily, you would pay $111.10 in taxes, and have $999.90 left over, which would be eligible for maaser. So you would need to pay $99.99 in maaser.


But if you paid the $99.99 in maaser, you would then be able to deduct $99.99 from your taxable income, making your taxes only $101.101 (assuming you had stayed in the same bracket). This means you would have $1009.899 to pay maaser on, and would owe $100.9899 in maaser.


So, in addition to the possible almost $10 deduction in your net maaser contribution from getting a tax break (as suggested in this question), could there possibly be a further "deduction" in the sense that you now have more income to pay maaser on? And what about after you pay that maaser and get another tax break? How far does it go?



(I'm more interested in whether this is addressed in halacha than whether it is mathematically or practically feasible, since I'm pretty sure it is both of those.)


Related: Should tax deductions be deducted from total maaser giving?


Is maaser calculated pre-tax or after-tax?


Does Ma'aser count if you have an ulterior motive?



Answer



I don't know whether my answer describes real situation — it is an idealized model. Firstly, you get income. Based on this, let us define:



Of course,





  • and




  • (you pay Ma'aser with tax deducted and vice versa).




Therefore, you need to calculate solution to equation


.


The analytical solution doesn't have to necessarily exist. You can use any iterative method of root calculation to get the numerical result for , for instance Newton's method. When you finally have it, you pay Ma'aser and of tax. This equation is analytically solvable in special cases. For instance, let us assume that


.



It is a linear progression --- if you pay 17% of tax, . In such case


.


Solution to this equation for is


.


Analogously,


.


The answer (how much should you pay) in case of linear progression is thus




  • of state tax,





  • of Ma'aser, where




EDIT: In answer to OP question in comments --- checking the convergence that is --- let us generalize variables to have explicit time dependence. Thus,



So that in one particular (—th) month one owes Ma'aser and pays of tax (in linear model, I assume constant as well). We can write equations analogous to the previous ones, but now what matters in —th month is how much one paid in previous one:





  • and




  • .




Reindexing ( and ) the first equation and putting second into first yields


.


This iterative equation can be solved the following way: we split into constant and variable part:


.



The choice is of course not unique. We want to choose such that equation for has simple form. Combining the two previous equations yields



The equation for is really simple when


,


i.e., the constant terms are canceling each other. Then,


,


and since , when . It means that in long time , which is


.


This is exactly the answer for calculated in previous section. Therefore, regardless of initial conditions, if one only follows the rules that tax payed in —th month determines amount of Ma'aser in —th month (and vice versa), he/she eventually reaches the proper (`equilibrium') amounts of Ma'aser and tax.


physical chemistry - How can we say that one mole of a substance contains avogadro number of particles?


I just want to know, what was the procedure through which the value of one mole of a substance was considered as a an aggregate of $6.023\cdot10^{23}$ particles.


Secondly, how do we calculate the volume occupied by one mole of gas?



Answer




There's a nice Scientific American article that provides an interesting historical perspective on Avogadro's Number. They go on to point out that one of the early accurate determinations was based on the first accurate measurement of the charge on an electron. The charge on a mole of electrons (1 Faraday) had been known for some time. Dividing the latter by the former yielded Avogadro's Number.


As to the volume of 1 mole of gas at STP, imagine the following experiment:


1) weigh out 1 mole of oxygen gas (32 gm)


2) fill a balloon with this weight of gas


3) attach a pressure gauge to the balloon and expand or contract the balloon's volume until the gauge reads 1 atmosphere


4) Immerse the balloon in a water tank and measure the volume of water displaced - 22.4 liters


non rabbinic judaism - Jewish sects that accept only the Tanach



Are there any Jewish sects which regard the Oral Law, Talmud and other interpretations of Tanach as unlawful addition to the religion? If yes who are they and what are their beliefs?




history - How could different pronunciations arise when we are obligated to pronounce the Shema precisely?


If one does not pronounce the Shema correctly, one has not fulfilled their obligation (שולחן ערוך או"ח סימן סב). If so, then how could different pronunciations of the Hebrew words arise? Shouldn't at least the majority have heard it from their father, and on back, with exactly precision? Even if you would say that casual speech is affected by local languages, liturgical Hebrew is not casual speech.


Given this obligation to precision in pronunciation, how could variants in pronunciation have arisen, at least for fulfilling this mitzvah?




passive voice - Parsing potential phrase modifying a noun


From Hirameki Hatsume-chan Vol 1, chapter 71 How does the sentence in the third panel translate, and who is doing what to whom? Is it a potential and the どうぐ is "enabling" him to have good dreams or is it passive and the 見る verb used to mean "show"?



Answer




[(私が/人が)いい夢を見られる]道具

A tool [with which (I/people) can see a good dream]



いい夢を見られる is a relative clause modifying 道具.
Its non-relative equivalent would be:



道具(私が/人が)いい夢を見られる。
With a tool, (I/people) can see a good dream.



So the 見られる is potential. Its subject can be "I", "we", "you" or "people" who will have a good dream using that tool. The particle で goes missing when you turn the sentence into the relative clause.


Compare:






  • 私がペン使った。-- I used the pen.
    → [私が使った]ペン -- the pen that I used (を goes missing)




  • 道具火を起こす。 -- (I) start a fire with a tool.
    → [火を起こす]道具 -- a tool with which (I) start a fire (で goes missing)





  • きれいな字が書ける。 -- (I) can write beautiful characters with a brush.
    → [きれいな字が書ける]筆 -- the brush with which (I) can write beautiful characters. (で goes missing)





physical chemistry - Estimation of the bond angle of water


We know from experimental data that $\ce{H-O-H}$ bond angle in water is approximately 104.5 degrees. If its two lone pairs were bonds (which is unfortunately impossible) also $\ce{O-H}$ bonds and a perfect tetrahedron resulted, then VSEPR theory would predict that the bond angle would be 109.5 degrees - this number can be easily derived using the geometry of a tetrahedron. However, how would people give estimates of the actual bonding angle of water, which is caused by a slightly greater repulsion by the lone pairs than there would be if they were bonds? What physics would be involved in the calculation? Thanks!



Answer




how would people give estimates of the actual bonding angle of water


What physics would be involved in the calculation




Background


That's a very good question. In many cases Coulson's Theorem can be used to relate bond angles to the hybridization indices of the bonds involved.


$$\ce{1+\lambda_{i} \lambda_{j} cos(\theta_{ij})=0}$$


where $\ce{\lambda_{i}}$ represents the hybridization index of the $\ce{C-i}$ bond (the hybridization index is the square root of the bond hybridization) and $\ce{\theta_{ij}}$ represents the $\ce{i-C-j}$ bond angle.


enter image description here


For example, in the case of methane, each $\ce{C-H}$ bond is $\ce{sp^3}$ hybridized and the hybridization index of each $\ce{C-H}$ bond is $\sqrt3$. Using Coulson's theorem we find that the $\ce{H-C-H}$ bond angle is 109.5 degrees.


How can we use this approach to answer your question?


Unlike methane, water is not a perfectly tetrahedral molecule, so the oxygen bonding orbitals and the oxygen lone pair orbitals will not be exactly $\ce{sp^3}$ hybridized. Since addition of s-character to an orbital stabilizes electrons in that orbital (because the s orbital is lower in energy than the p orbital) and since the electron density is higher in the lone pair orbital than the $\ce{O-H}$ orbital (because the electrons in the lone pair orbital are not being shared with another atom), we might expect that oxygen lone pair orbital will have more s-character and the oxygen $\ce{O-H}$ orbital will have less s-character.


If we examine the case where the $\ce{O-H}$ bond is $\ce{sp^4}$ hybridized, we find from Coulson's Theorem that the $\ce{H-O-H}$ angle is predicted to be around 104.5°. So indeed, in agreement with our prediction, removing s-character from the oxygen $\ce{O-H}$ orbital gives rise to the observed bond angle.


Note on reality



For over 50 years students have been told that water is roughly $\ce{sp^3}$ hybridized. The general description is that there are two equivalent O-H sigma bonds and two equivalent lone pairs orbitals. The lone pair - lone pair repulsion is greater than the sigma bond - sigma bond repulsion, so the hybridization changes as described above and the lone pair-O-lone pair angle opens up slightly and the $\ce{H-O-H}$ angle closes down to the observed 104.5 degrees.


With the advent of photoelectron spectroscopy it was found that the two lone pairs in water were not equivalent (2 signals were observed for the lone pairs). Now, the hybridization of water is described as follows:



  • 2 $\ce{sp^4}$ O-H sigma bonds

  • one lone pair in a p orbital

  • and the second lone pair in an $\ce{sp}$ orbital


bein adam lachavero - Scrutinising the legitimacy/cause of a charity collector


In many synagogues that I frequent charity collectors come round collecting money for themselves, families or other causes. They often have a certificate declaring the legitimacy of their cause (although people don't necessarily recognise the names of the Rabbis/institutions that sign the approbation).


Some people give more freely which is perhaps a middat chassidut; or perhaps people are uncomfortable questioning the status of such a person and give minimally in any case. However, some feel it is necessary to scrutinise the collectors' certificates, reading if indeed their cause is something that they would like to support or whether it is a reliable certificate (in date, etc.). This could be embarrassing for the collector, that someone is 'evaluating whether they are worthy' to receive charity.


To what extent is one allowed to scrutinise a collector's legitimacy and cause before giving them money? Is there ever an assumption/clause that defines them as legitimate without the need for in depth investigation?


An extreme example being: After someone had enquired of a collector, in a synagogue I attended, it became apparent that the collector was collecting in order to fix his roof...



Answer



This is a very interesting and difficult question not addressed directly by any of the many sources I consulted. So here are a few relevant sources I collected on the topic.


It emerges that you do not have an obligation to research the credentials of a random collector, neither are you obligated to give him much. At the same time you cannot turn him away completely and need to give him a minimal amount, unless you are in a place where many beggars congregate.



In general one is obligated in the mitzva of tsedaka as soon as one has knowledge of someone in need.



Beyond the psukim in the Torah (e.g., Dvarim 15:8 "rather you should open your hand to him", Dvarim 15:10 "you shall surely give him", Vayikra 25:35 "if your brother becomes impoverished and his means falter in your proximity, you shall strengthen him"), there is a pasuk in Tehilim 74:21 "do not turn back the oppressed in shame" which the Rema tells us means one should not turn away an indigent without at least giving him something (based on Rambam Hilchot Matanot Anyim 7:7).


R Moshe Feinstein (Igrot Moshe YD vol. 1, 144) rules that an individual has the right to divide his money as he wishes and that the rules of priority from the Shulchan Aruch apply only to a gabbai tsedaka (an administrator of public tsedaka funds), based on the idea that our maaser money doesn't belong to us but we retain the priviledge to distribute it how we want.


Aruch Hashulchan (YD 250:7) says each person approached by a collector may give them the smallest amount because no specific individual is responsible to support them. In practical terms the minimal gift is the smallest coin which can buy some food item in the market, in the US 25 cents is acceptable, some say even a dime. In Israel R Y Fisher from Badatz ruled 10 agorot is the minimal gift.


This is further restricted in situations where many beggars congregate in the same place (e.g., synagogue, wedding). R Chaim Ozer Grozensky, R Yaakov Yisrael Kanievski (the Steipler) and R Chaim Kanievski are quoted to say that is simply impossible to give everyone in a place where many ask as it becomes ein ladavar sof, a never-ending collection, although for them the rationale is that it becomes too large of a gift for which the donor is exempt.


R Avrohom Chaim Feuer writes



a peremptory perusal of the documents displayed by the random collector is quite sufficient. It is not necessary to carefully research the letters of recommendation and credentials because it is beyond the ability of most people to properly verify these documents and the halacha doesn't require it from them. As stated above,the halacha is "one who collects from door to door - give him a minimum token donation".



The idea is of course to be able to channel his tzedaka funds to sources of higher priority or ones we prefer, not to donate less.


Sources for many of these are in




both highly recommended for those interested in the topic


Is it possible for one of reactants to deplete before achieving equilibrium


Consider the following reaction where $\ce{A}$ & $\ce{B}$ reacts to produce $\ce{C}$ & $\ce{D}$.


$$\ce{ A(g) + B(g) <=> C(g) + D(g)}$$


Is it possible for $\ce{A}$ or/and $\ce{B}$ to run out before equilibrium at some given starting moles of $\ce{A}$,$\ce{B}$,$\ce{C}$ & $\ce{D}$.




Answer



No, that is not possible.


Consider the definition of equilibrium from the IUPAC gold book:



chemical equilibrium Reversible processes [processes which may be made to proceed in the forward or reverse direction by the (infinitesimal) change of one variable], ultimately reach a point where the rates in both directions are identical, so that the system gives the appearance of having a static composition at which the Gibbs energy, $G$, is a minimum. At equilibrium the sum of the chemical potentials of the reactants equals that of the products, so that: \begin{align} \Delta G_\mathrm{r} &= \Delta G_\mathrm{r}^\circ + R T \ln K &&= 0\\ \Delta G_\mathrm{r}^\circ &= − R T \ln K\\ \end{align} The equilibrium constant, $K$, is given by the mass-law effect.



The important thing is that the reaction proceeds in both directions. It means, that as soon as some of the product is formed, it will react back towards the reactants. The equilibrium is reached when the rates of both of the directions are identical.
From the formula in the definition, you can also see, that the location of the equilibrium, i.e. the concentration of all species or $K$, is only determined by the difference in the Gibbs energy between products and reactants.
In other words, a system that forms an equilibrium will always form an equilibrium, independent of the concentration of the starting materials.


Monday 29 June 2015

organic chemistry - Why are fluorides more reactive in nucleophilic aromatic substitutions than bromides?


In nucleophilic aromatic substitution reactions, why do fluorides react faster than bromides?


Ordinarily bromide is a better leaving group than fluoride, e.g. in $\mathrm{S_N2}$ reactions, so why isn't this the case here? The only thing I can think of is that fluorine is more electron-withdrawing (via the inductive effect), which could stabilise the Meisenheimer complex formed as an intermediate.



Answer



The key point to understanding why fluorides are so reactive in the nucleophilic aromatic substitution (I will call it SNAr in the following) is knowing the rate determining step of the reaction mechanism. The mechanism is as shown in the following picture (Nu = Nucleophile, X = leaving group):


enter image description here


Now, the first step (= addition) is very slow as aromaticity is lost and thus the energy barrier is very high. The second step (= elimination of the leaving group) is quite fast as aromaticity is restored. So, since the elimination step is fast compared to the addition step, the actual quality of the leaving group is not very important, because even if you use a very good leaving group (e.g. iodine), which speeds up the elimination step, the overall reaction rate will not increase as the addition step is the bottleneck of the reaction.



Now, what about fluorine? Fluorine is not a good leaving group, but that doesn't matter as I said before. It is not the leaving group ability of $\ce{F-}$ which makes the reaction go faster than with, say, bromine or chlorine, but its very high negative inductive effect (due to its large electronegativity). This negative inductive effect helps to stabilize the negative charge in the Meisenheimer complex and thus lowers the activation barrier of the (slow) addition step. Since this step is the bottleneck of the overall reaction, a speedup here, speeds up the whole reaction.


Leaving groups with a negative mesomeric effect (but little negative inductive effect) are not good at stabilizing the Meisenheimer complex, because the negative charge can't be delocalized to them.


purim torah in jest - PTIJ - Who is Boris Karshina



I have heard much about Boris Karshina, but cannot find any biographical information for him on the Internet (other than here, where his name is misspelled). Please help me!


Edit: Never mind, I found him here on Facebook. (Apparently my jokes are not original...)






Answer



He lives in Cabin 9, In, Cyprus.


inorganic chemistry - Difference between catenation and allotropy


Can anyone tell me what the difference between catenation and allotropy is? I would like the basic explanation.



Answer



Catenation refers to the ability of an element to form long chains. The most notable example is carbon (catenation of carbon is what gives rise to the entire field of organic chemistry).



Allotropy is an entirely different concept; it refers to the natural existence of an element in different forms, i.e. bonded differently. For example, solid carbon exists in the forms of diamond and graphite (and more).


In a sense, the two are related because the ability of an element to catenate often leads to the formation of many different allotropes, since the chains can be linked in different ways. Apart from carbon, another example of an element that can catenate well and forms multiple allotropes would be phosphorus. On the other hand, nitrogen and oxygen prefer to form triple and double bonds respectively, instead of single bonds; this means that catenation is unlikely and that is why these elements have few allotropes (nitrogen exists as diatomic $\ce{N2}$, oxygen as diatomic $\ce{O2}$ and ozone).


word choice - Why isn't a large amount of money a good enough reason to kill someone?


In my JLPT workbook, there is this example question:



適当{てきとう}な語{ご}を選{えら}びなさい


この殺人{さつじん}事件{じけん}の裏{うら}には(  )上{じょう}のトラブルがあるようだ。


A 金額{きんがく}  B 大金{たいきん}  C 金銭{きんせん}  D 基金{ききん}



The answer is... (drum roll, please)... C, 金銭{きんせん}.


First, I'm a little vague on the meaning of 金銭{きんせん}. Seems to just mean "money", but how is it different from just saying 金{かね}?



More importantly, while it does fit as an answer, I don't clearly see why it's a better answer than B, 大金{たいきん} (can also be read おおがね), which means "a large amount of money".


To me it makes more sense that a large amount of money is more of a motive for murder than just money in general.


Why is 金銭{きんせん} a better answer than 大金{たいきん}?




Rough translation of the question:



Select the appropriate word


It appears that underneath this incident of murder there was some trouble with ( ).


A An amount of money B a large amount of money C money(?) D a fund





Answer



As @nkjt said in a comment above, this 〜上 is the one meaning, "from the viewpoint/standpoint of 〜". A very common one you'll see in a lot of places is 安全上の注意 ("safety precautions" -- I used to see this under the lids of those fancy toilets). So 金銭上 would mean "from the standpoint of money", or put more simply, "financial". So it would translate as, "...it appears there was some financial trouble."


Also, as you mentioned in the comments, the other answers aren't necessarily wrong, but they are not the best choice for the sentence. In this case, the other three words 金額 (amount of money), 大金 (large sum of money), and 基金 (funds/funding) could work if there were more context. However, for it to be the best answer, it seems like you'd need a fair amount of context. You'd almost need a short "story", probably involving an amount of money and/or a description of the crime scene. But something like that would be better fitted to the reading section of the test instead the grammar or vocab section.


grammar - Use of the causitive form without an obvious source of causation




記憶を刈るという部分がメアを彷彿とさせる



the part (of the story) where memories were reaped, resembles Mare.



ファインダーを覗いてレンズをあちこちに巡らせるが、円盤の光は影を潜めている。



(operating a camera) while he peeked at the finder and looked around with the lens, the disk's light had vanished.



メアの頭を巣にしていたドラゴン(?)が、翼をはためかせて浮遊した。




the dragon (?) nesting on Mare's head flapped it's wing and floated.


Is there some additional purpose of the causative form beyond making/allowing?


thank you



Answer




記憶を刈るという部分が[人々に]メアを彷彿とさせる



The "source of causation" is 記憶を刈るという部分. The agent ("causee") is unspecified, but it's "generic you" (one/you/people/人/人々/etc). 彷彿(と)する means "to have (something you've seen before) in mind", "to imagine (something) vividly". The sentence literally means "The memory-reaping part makes people imagine メア," or less literally, "The memory-reaping part reminds us of メア."




[彼は]ファインダーを覗いてレンズをあちこちに巡らせる



The "source of causation" is the user of the camera, the implied subject of the sentence. The agent is レンズ. 巡る is an intransitive verb meaning "to move around". The causative part literally means "[He] makes the lens move around".



メアの頭を巣にしていたドラゴン(?)が、翼をはためかせて浮遊した。



The "source of causation" is 'ドラゴン(?)', and the agent is 翼. はためく is an intransitive verb meaning "to flap". The causative part literally means "The dragon made the wings flap". English flap works both transitively and intransitively, but はためく is only intransitive, so you'll need はためかせる.


In case you're not sure why the agent is marked either by に or を, please read this. The point is that 彷彿(と)する is transitive, but 巡る and はためく are intransitive.


physical chemistry - Why does water evaporate spontaneously at room temperature despite ΔG > 0?


Standard Gibbs free energy of formation of liquid water at $\pu{298 K}$ is $\pu{−237.17 kJ mol-1}$ and that of water vapour is $\pu{−228.57 kJ mol-1}$ therefore,



$$\ce{H2O (l) -> H2O (g)}\qquad\Delta G =\pu{8.43{kJ mol-1}}$$


Since $\Delta G>0$, it should not be a spontaneous process but from common observation, water does turn into vapour from liquid over time without any apparent interference. Why does this happen?



Answer




Standard Gibbs free energy of formation of liquid water at 298 K is −237.17 kJ/mol and that of water vapour is −228.57 kJ/mol. Therefore, $$\ce{H2O(l)->H2O(g)}~~\Delta G=8.43~\mathrm{kJ/mol}$$


Since $\Delta G>0$, it should not be a spontaneous process but from common observation, water does turn into vapour from liquid over time without any apparent interference.



Your math is correct but you left out a very important symbol from your equations. There is a big difference between $\Delta G$ and $\Delta G^\circ$. Only $\Delta G^\circ$ means the Gibbs energy change under standard conditions, and as you noted in the question, the free energy values you quoted are the standard gibbs free energy of water and water vapor.


Whether or not something is spontaneous under standard conditions is determined by $\Delta G^\circ$. Whether something is spontaneous under other conditions is determined by $\Delta G$. To find $\Delta G$ for real conditions, we need to know how they differ from standard conditions.


Usually "standard" conditions for gases correspond to one bar of partial pressure for that gas. But the partial pressure of water in our atmosphere is usually much lower than this. Assuming water vapor is an ideal gas, then the free energy change as a function of partial pressure is given by $G = G^\circ + RT \ln{\frac{p}{p^\circ}}$. If the atmosphere were perfectly 100% dry, then the water vapor partial pressure would be 0, so $\ln{\frac{p}{p^\circ}}$ would be negative infinity. That would translate to an infinitely negative -- i.e. highly spontaneous -- $\Delta G$ for the water evaporation reaction.



Small but not-quite zero dryness in the atmosphere would still lead to the $\Delta G$ of water vapor that is more negative than liquid water. So water evaporation is still spontaneous.


Extra credit: given the standard formation energies you found, and assuming water is an ideal gas, you could calculate the partial pressure of water vapor at which $\Delta G = 0$ for water evaporation. And the answer had better be the vapor pressure of water, or else there is a thermodynamic inconsistency in your data set!


Why are lactate and lactic acid used synonymously in biochemistry?


In science there's always a misuse of the two terms. I know that lactate is the conjugate base of lactic acid.


Why are they used like is the same thing? For exemple: in lactic acid bacteria (LAB) fermentation it's often said that anaerobic glycolysis produces lactic acid, but if you actually look at the reaction it produces lactate.



Is this relevant? Because lactate is a negative compound while lactic acid is a neutral one.




Chalav Yisrael milk: stringency or binding?


In a time where we know with enough certainty (when compared with other kashrut principles) that cow’s milk sold in most countries where we live is indeed cow’s milk, how do we know whether the laws about chalav Yisrael still have a purpose? I'd like to know the arguments on both sides: those who say it is now not contextually relevant, or those who say it is still a binding law, at least until overturned by a Sanhedrin.


If it's only an added stringency, I don't know if I would keep it (I'm just in the conversion process) since it causes such complications in the community. Then again, if it was intended to matter and remain necessary across circumstances, I see very much why Talmudic agreements/decisions like this must be followed. Or even just because of the way cultural customs in the Jewish community do carry attributes of real value to following generations, and it's hard to separate them.


I am curious about how much the original intention vs. the literal detail should be known and followed when it comes to this particular law.




adjectives - What is the difference between 美しき and 麗しき?


What is the difference between 美しき and 麗しき and what is the difference between 美しい and 美しき?


I know that both 美しい女性 and 美しき女性 are correct. But what is the difference between these two?



Answer



Adjective Endings い and き


All the modern い adjectives used to have the following endings (more at the JA Wikipedia article, for those who can read Japanese):



  • 未然形{みぜんけい} (imperfective): く


  • 連用形{れんようけい} (adverbial): く

  • 終止形{しゅうしけい} (terminal): し

  • 連体形{れんようけい} (adnominal): き

  • 已然形{いぜんけい} (perfective): けれ

  • 命令形{めいれいけい} (imperative): -


The 未然形 and 連用形 are the same in modern Japanese, still ending in く. The 連体形 ending in classical Japanese was き instead of い, and folks still use that to sound old-fashioned and/or literary. So too for the 終止形 ending of し, still seen in literary use or in set phrases like よし (classical terminal form of modern 良{よ}い).


As for where the き > い shift came from, there was a time around the Muromachi period when the interstitial -k- fell out entirely for some speakers, producing forms like はやい for the 連体形 and はやう for the 連用形. This う adverbial form produced modern terms like おはよう (from 早{はや}い: はやく > はやう > はよう) or おめでとう (from 愛{め}でる: めでたく > めでたう > めでとう).


For reasons left unclear, the general population ultimately accepted the き > い shift for the 連体形, but rejected the く > う shift for the 連用形. The 連体形 and the 終止形 then merged, much as they did for verbs, leading to the disappearance of the し ending.


TL;DR: き is old-fashioned and fancified.



hashkafah philosophy - Lubavitch and Geocentricism



I read here in an article by Rabbi Gil Student that the late Lubavitcher Rebbe zy"a believed in the geocentric model despite the modern scientific evidence to the contrary. What is the source for this claim? Can someone cite a letter or Sicha from the Rebbe zy"a where he discusses his support for the geocentric model?



Answer



See also this letter by the Lubavitcher Rebbe on this subject, in which he states:



It is my firm belief that the sun revolves around the earth, as I have also declared publicly on various occasions and in discussion with professors specializing in this field of science.



He also explains why he believed this way based on the Theory of Relativity.


What is convolution of two sine waves (tones)?


Convolution of two sine waves (or tones as called in audio) is theoretically not defined as the integral is infinite. Taking finite duration windowed sine waves and doing there convolution computationally always contains a fundamental frequency equal to that of the lower frequency sine wave. I am not getting an intuitive understanding of this. Anybody who can share more understanding in this?




Sunday 28 June 2015

choleh sick - Is there a principle as “so that the sons of Israel not be promiscuous toward immorality”?


The Gemara (Sanhedrin 75a) discusses a case of a man who became so lovesick for a woman that he fell deathly ill. The Chachamim said it would be better to let him die than to be intimate with her, and even to see her (unclothed), and even to speak with her through a wall.


The Gemara asks: why is it that we take the prohibition of immorality even on pain of death to such a degree that even to speak with her through a wall is prohibited? One answer presented (that of R’ Acha b. R’ Ika) is that even though she was single, they forbade this “so that the daughters of Israel not be promiscuous toward immorality.”


What would be the Halacha in the opposite case, according to this answer of the Gemara? If it were a woman who was sick, would a man be able to speak with her through a wall? The same way that we say “so that the daughters of Israel not be promiscuous,” would we say “so that the sons of Israel not be promiscuous”? Would it make a difference if the woman was single or married if she’s the one who is sick?


Once again, I’m asking according to this answer of the Gemara. Answering that “Posek X doesn’t hold of this opinion and therefore it doesn’t matter” is not a valid answer, since I’m asking on the Gemara, not on (hopefully not) practical Halacha.




meaning - What does やい mean?



Someone ended their sentence with やいな. What dialect is this? What does やい mean? I assume that な means the same thing as in standard Japanese?


Update: the original sentence was 「もう出来あがり?仕事はやいな~」.



Answer



Update: This is not an instance of やい, but rather 速い【はやい】, so the information in my original answer is not actually applicable in this case.




Wikipedia suggests that at the very least, this is a feature of Hakata dialect (though it is also likely a feature of other dialects as well, as suggested by my comment above). In Hakata dialect, it is used as a light suggestion/command, like the ~て form of verbs in other dialect:





  • 「やい」(軽い命令)
    動詞の連用形に接続。「やれ」の転化したもの。


    • 「ちょっとあそこを見て」→「ちいとあすこば見やい」






な would then be the same as in standard Japanese, as you assumed.


grammar - Difference between passive form and てある


I'm confused about the difference between the passive form and the てある form.



飲み物はもう買ってあります


The drinks have already been bought.


飲み物はもう買われました



The drinks were already bought.



Are my translations correct? Is it that verb-てある means 'verb has been done', whereas, verb-passive means 'verb was done'? Are there any other subtleties? Thanks.



Answer




Are my translations correct?



I could not say 'no', but as a Japanese-speaker, I do know that you basically would never hear one of us say 「飲{の}み物{もの}はもう買{か}われました。」 to mean anything. It certainly does not mean the same as 「飲み物はもう買ってあります」.


「飲み物はもう買ってあります」 is a 100% natural-sounding sentence so I do not have to think about what it could mean. It could only mean one thing: "I/We bought drinks some time ago for a specific purpose and they are still here waiting to be consumed."


With 「飲み物はもう買われました。」, however, one would have to think hard about what it could possibly mean as it is such a strange-sounding sentence to the native ear. It could mean something like "The drinks that I wanted to buy had already been bought by another person.", but to say that it would be more natural to use 「買われていました」 than to use 「買われました」.



halacha - Is it halachically ok to buy and sell cigarettes?


I live in a country where cigarettes are very cheap. I am going to travel somewhere where I can sell cigarettes for much more than it cost me. If I take them, I will make a huge profit.


However I am concerned that it may be halachically incorrect to sell these cigarettes to other Jews because it may be a transgression of lifnei Eiver Lo Titen Michshol - One must not place a stumbling block before a 'blind' person.



To establish if this is in fact prohibited we must first make sure that smoking in the first place is prohibited. I always understood that it was completely forbidden due to the prohibition of committing suicide (correct me if I am wrong).


However, one can argue (this is what many friends of mine tried to argue) that they are going to smoke the cigarettes anyway since they are addicted. So there should be nothing wrong with being the one who provides them.


I would like to know which side is correct (please bring sources to any answers) Thanks


Edit: as Daniel mentioned in the comments, I think it is actually illegal to do such a thing. I presume that this also makes it halachically incorrect?




inorganic chemistry - What is the difference between the structure of nitrito-o and nitrito-n?


I am preparing for chemistry olympiad and I am stuck nitrito-o and nitrito-n. Can anyone explain difference between the structure of nitrito-o and nitrito-n or point a resource which is suitable for a beginner?




Answer



The last letter of nitrite-o and nitrite-n depicts the atom which is attached to the other atom. This phenomenon is called linkage isomerism and is an important concept in both organic and inorganic chemistry.



  • inorganic chemistry


enter image description here


This complex exhibits linkage isomerism which results in two possible ways of attachment of ligand to the central atom. First one, the $\ce{NO2}$ ligates with the central atom through the nitrogen atom and thus is called pentaammine nitrito-N-cobalt (III) chloride and the second one, $\ce{NO2}$ ligates with the central atom through the oxygen atom and thus is called pentaammine nitrito-O-cobalt (III) chloride. In this case, $\ce{NO2}$ is called ambident ligant and is represented as nitrito-κ-N and nitrito-κ-O, replacing the old system of trivial names such as nitro and nitroso.



  • organic chemistry



Alkyl nitrite forms two isomers:- $\ce{RNO2}$ (called alkyl nitrite-N) and $\ce{R-O-N=O}$ (called alkyl nitrite-O). [For preparation of these two isomers, see this answer].


rabbis - Does a Jewish grandmother (mother's side) really get one accepted as a Jew?



My grandmother (mother's side) is 100% Jewish and even living in Israel. As far as I know, that makes, me a Jew, too. But it feels a little bit strange to say that I am Jewish just because my grandmother is.



If someone with one Jewish grandparent - maternal grandmother - and no Jewish upbringing goes to a rabbi and asks for help in living as a Jew, would the rabbi find that strange? Would the person really be accepted as a Jew, right off the bat?



Answer



Among those Rabbis that I know, if/when they are approached by someone who wasn't raised as a Jew but has a Jewish maternal grandparent, they welcome them with open arms as Jews, albeit Jews who have been estranged from their own religion. I have known this to have occurred on multiple occasions (although I was never personally involved in any).


It may be useful here to distinguish between various forms of "Jewishness". According to halakha, that is, Jewish Law, such a person is completely Jewish in the sense that person is bound by Jewish Law (as opposed to Noahide Law) and if that person is a woman, her children retain that status as well.


However, if someone doesn't identify with the Jewish people, then they can lose some of their "Jewish rights". This includes a share in the afterlife as well as in the good fortune of the Jewish people that is promised to them by the Prophets (Rambam, Hilchos Teshuvah 3:11). This is likewise true of Jews who don't believe in the 'Jewish beliefs' (Rambam's Introduction to Perek Cheilek). There are also several laws in the Torah that differentiate between Jews and non-Jews (such as the fact that shehita, ritual slaughter, can only be done by a Jew), and many of those laws only consider those who personally identify with the Jewish faith to be Jewish. This loss of "Jewish rights" is applicable equally to a person was raised in the most traditional Jewish family and someone is merely Jewish by virtue of having a Jewish maternal grandmother, once (s)he could no longer identifies with the Jewish faith.


But, to re-emphasize, such a person is still considered a Jew regarding his/her own legal status (i.e. that person is considered bound by Jewish Law and, if female, will have Jewish children), so once/if such a person decides to identify as a Jew, that person will be 100% Jewish in every respect, and not require any form of conversion ceremony.


How/why are the $mathcal Z$-transform and unit delays related?


The $\mathcal Z$-transform uses the same notation as the unit delay $z^{-1}$, but in $\mathcal Z$-transform $z$ is a complex number.




  • What's the relation between the $\mathcal Z$-transform and the unit delay concept?





  • Also, is there a complex number interpretation of unit delay?






Saturday 27 June 2015

joshua book of - Where did the Leviim stand during the Blessings and Curses?


Did the Leviim stand on Mount Gerizim, or between the two mountains--in Shechem--or some of both? (Compare the linked chumash with "The area between the two mountains is enclosed, the Ark is situated in the middle, the priests and Levites surround the Ark and all of Israel stands on either side," from here.)




halacha - Can a Cohen marry a bat niddah?


Can a Cohen marry a bat niddah? Are Cohens generally restricted from marrying baalot teshuva because of the possibility that they may be b'not niddah?



Answer



The Shulchan Aruch Even HaEzer 4:13 says that a ben or bat niddah is 'pagum' (defective). The Beit Shemuel, Chelkat Mechokek and Gra (the major commentaries there) all say that this does not exclude them from marrying a kohein.


molecules - When did the atom Theory Become indisputable?


We know that the Greeks were the first scientists (or better, philosophers) to introduce the idea that matter is made up of little “chunks”, and they named these chunks “atoms”. This idea that matter comes in discrete small pieces was termed wrong and right over centuries when John Dalton, in the 19th century, constructed a theoretical framework in which he could explain in an elegant way the work of scientists such as Joseph Priestley and Antoine Lavoisier on qualitative and quantitative properties of matter and its transformations. The framework which John Dalton used to better understand the work of other scientists had in its core the “language” of atoms, that is, he used the concept of atoms to explain, for example, why reactions only occurs if we have quantities “in proportion”. Note that the work of John Dalton doesn't proof that atoms are real, it only shows that thinking of matter in terms of atoms is a suitable way to understand the results coming out of experiments. Scientists only proved that atoms are real at the beginning of the 20th century, and that discovery gave birth to Quantum Mechanics.


Now comes my question: When did scientists prove that molecules “are real”? In other words, what is the history of the discovery of (the shape of) molecules?


Scientists have been playing around with toy models of particles for a long time but only a short time ago IBM researchers managed to “take a picture” of an actual molecule, and its configuration matches exactly the models we've been using for a long time, for example this pentacene molecule:


enter image description here


When did we first learn that molecules have a “geometry”? That is, an exact arrangement in space?




How can the FFT be used for estimating linear chirp parameters?



Consider a linear chirp signal, i.e. $f(t) = f_0 + kt$, where $f_0$ is the starting frequency, and $k$ is the chirp rate. After applying an FFT, how would I find the starting frequency and chirp rate?




tefilla - Kohen as Chazzan During Birchas Kohanim


Can a kohen serve as chazzan for mussaf on days when there is birchas kohanim? If so, what is the proper procedure for him to follow?



Answer



If I'm reading Shulchan Aruch 128:20, 22, 25, with Mishna B'rura, correctly, the rule is as follows. But contact your local, orthodox rabbi for any practical cases.


Is the shatz (leader, "chazan") the only kohen, or are there others?




  • If he's the only one, and he has a sidur, he should step toward the duchan at "r'tze", go on the duchan for birkas kohanim, do birkas kohanim facing the congregation, return to his place, and complete the amida.

  • If there is another kohen, then no one should tell the shatz to wash his hands or to do birkas kohanim. Did anyone?

    • If so, he should do as described above in the "If he's one only one" paragraph.

    • If not, he should not do birkas kohanim.




In all cases, someone not a kohen should prompt the kohanim and say "kohanim" (though not "elokenu..."); however, if no one present is able to who's not a kohen then the shatz should prompt the kohanim and say the introduction, unless he's doing birkas kohanim.



number - How many halachot are detailed in the Mishneh Torah?



How many halachot are detailed in the Mishneh Torah?


To clarify, I am interested in the counting of the author's (i.e. if the Mishneh Torah details two rules under one halacha that counts as one and not two).



Answer



According to Mechon Mamre:


TL;DR


TOTAL - 16,818 (+ 104)



  1. Hamada` - 725


  2. Ahavah - 730 (+ 63)

  3. Zemanim - 1,738 (+ 41)

  4. Nashim - 1,207

  5. Qedushah - 1,140

  6. Hafla'ah - 820

  7. Zera`im - 1,582

  8. `Avodah - 1,537

  9. Haqorbanot - 651

  10. Taharah - 2,317

  11. Nezaqim - 993


  12. Qinyan - 1,191

  13. Mishpattim - 1,141

  14. Shofettim - 1,046





  1. Hamada` - 725

    • Yesode'i HaTorah - 140

    • De`ot - 130


    • Talmud Torah - 107

    • `Avodah Zarah Wehuqot Hagoyim - 218

    • Teshuvah - 130



  2. Ahavah - 730 (+ 63)

    • Qer'iat Shema` - 58

    • Tefillah U'birkat Kohanim - 253

    • Tefillin U'mezuzah Wesefer Torah - 162


    • Zizit - 40

    • Berakhot - 180

    • Milah - 37

    • (Seder Hatefillah - 63)



  3. Zemanim - 1,738 (+ 41)

    • Shabbat - 665

    • `E'iruvin - 165


    • Shevitat `Asor - 28

    • Shevitat Yom Tov - 178

    • Hamez U'mazah - 122 (+ 41)

      • (Nusah Hahaggadah - 41)



    • Shofar Wesukkah Welulav - 132

    • Sheqalim - 49

    • Qiddush Hahodesh - 252


    • Ta`aniyot - 84

    • Megillah Wehanukkah - 63



  4. Nashim - 1,207

    • Ishut - 581

    • Girushin - 323

    • Yibum Wehalizah - 189

    • Ne`arah Betulah - 42


    • Sottah - 72



  5. Qedushah - 1,140

    • Issure'i Bi'ah - 499

    • Ma'akhalot Assurot - 408

    • Shehittah - 233




  6. Hafla'ah - 820

    • Shevu`ot - 198

    • Nedarim - 252

    • Nezirut - 193

    • Arakhim U'heramim - 177



  7. Zera`im - 1,582


    • Kilayim - 181

    • Matenot `Aniyim - 194

    • Terumot - 332

    • Ma`aser - 241

    • Ma`aser Sheni Wenetta` Reva`i - 190

    • Bikkurim `Im She'ar Matenot Kehunah She'bagevulin - 218

    • Shemittah Weyovel - 226



  8. `Avodah - 1,537


    • Be'it Habehirah - 132

    • Kele'i Hamiqdash Weha`ovdim Bo - 156

    • Bi'at Hamiqdash - 140

    • Issure'i Mizbe'ah - 101

    • Ma`aseh Haqorbanot - 315

    • Temidin U'mussafin - 172

    • Pessule'i Hamuqdashin - 310

    • `Avodat Yom Hakippurim - 86

    • Me`ilah - 125




  9. Haqorbanot - 651

    • Qorban Pessah - 149

    • Hagigah - 40

    • Bekhorot - 123

    • Shegagot - 212

    • Mehussre'i Kapparah - 71

    • Temurah - 56




  10. Taharah - 2,317

    • Tum'at Met - 385

    • Parah Adumah - 218

    • Tum'at Zara`at - 250

    • Mettame'i Mishkav U'moshav - 196

    • She'ar Avot Hatum'ot - 331

    • Tum'at Okhalin - 284


    • Kelim - 470

    • Miqwot - 183



  11. Nezaqim - 993

    • Nizqe'i Mamon - 238

    • Genevah - 137

    • Gezelah Wa'avedah - 301

    • Hovel U'maziq - 138


    • Roze'ah U'shmirat Nefesh - 179



  12. Qinyan - 1,191

    • Mekhirah - 455

    • Zekhiyah U'matanah - 208

    • Shekhenim - 209

    • Sheluhin U'shutafin - 160

    • `Avadim - 159




  13. Mishpattim - 1,141

    • Sekhirut - 193

    • She'elah U'fiqadon - 103

    • Malweh Weloweh - 437

    • To`en Wenitt`an - 258

    • Nehalot - 150




  14. Shofettim - 1,046

    • Sanhedrin Weha`unshin Hamessurin Lahem - 327

    • `Edut - 253

    • Mamrim - 103

    • Evel - 194

    • Melakhim U'milhamot - 169





minhag - Eating at a shiva house


What is the basis for some people's practice not to eat the food at a shiva house; is there a halachik basis for this, is it a minhag or perhaps just superstition?




Friday 26 June 2015

halacha - Going out of the way to reach 100 Brachos in a day


There is a Halacha that one should say 100 Brachos per day. To what extend may and must one go to reach that number?


For example, if it is Tisha B'av and one is not near a minyan, may and must they find several opportunities to make a blessing over smelling spices if that is the only way to reach 100? Or in a similar situation but if it is Shabbos must one and may one have many small snacks for the sole purpose of getting to 100 Brachos?




organic chemistry - What is the product of the chemical reaction between phenol and ferric chloride?


The chemical reaction between phenol and ferric chloride is a test for the presence of phenol. They react with each other to produce a violet complex. However, the reaction is given differently in different links:




  1. $$\ce{3ArOH + FeCl3 → Fe(OAr)3 + 3HCl}$$


    source 1 , source 2





  2. $$\ce{6 ArOH + FeCl3 -> [Fe(OAr)6]^3- + 3H+ + 3HCl}$$ source




I guess the 2nd reaction is the appropriate one because it shows the formation of a complex, $\ce{[Fe(OAr)6]^3-}$. How could $\ce{Fe(OAr)3}$ be considered a complex? It should act like a ionic salt like $\ce{Na^+C6H5O^-}$ or $\ce{NaOAc}$.


So, what is the correct product of the reaction; $\ce{[Fe(OAr)6]^3-}$ or $\ce{Fe(OAr)3}$?



Answer



After doing some looking around, and going back to check what I thought I knew about coordination complexes, I think I understand why you're seeing two equations. I first recommend reading the pages on Chemguide that talk about coordination chemistry, particularly the first half of this page on acidity, and the pages on reactions with hydroxide and ammonia. Both were helpful to me in understanding an investigation I'm doing on copper (II) complexes, but the same ideas apply to 3+ compounds.


The important concepts to keep in mind are that coordination compounds (in situations like this, at least) will either undergo acid-base reactions or ligand-exchange reactions. Acid-base reactions result in neutralization and a precipitate, ligand-exchanges cause a color change. Phenol is a relatively strong acid (stronger than alcohol at least), and so is ferric chloride. I had to look around but this page says at the very bottom that all oxygen-containing compounds act as bases in the presence of Lewis acids (like ferric chloride).


$\ce{3ArOH + FeCl3 -> Fe(OAr)3 + 3HCl}$ is the acid-base reaction, and you get a ferric phenolate salt as a precipitate.



$\ce{6ArOH + FeCl3 -> [Fe(OAr)6]^3- + 3H+ + 3HCl}$ is the ligand-exchange. It's not immediately obvious, but you can rewrite the two reactions a different way and it becomes clear.


$$\ce{3ArOH + [Fe(H2O)6]^3+ -> Fe(H2O)3(OAr)3 + 3HCl}$$


$$\ce{6ArOH + [Fe(H2O)6]^3+ -> [Fe(OAr)6]^3- + 6H2O + 3H+ + 3HCl}$$


Those three $\ce{H+}$ ions are from the excess phenol. The ligand-exchange occurs only when the phenol is in excess and more water molecules can be replaced, making the iron compound ionic and soluble again.


So depending on the context, you'll see the one with three or the one with six. Both are correct, but $\ce{[Fe(OC6H5)6]^3-}$ is the new complex and $\ce{Fe(OAr)3}$ is an intermediate product.


Hope that helps.


prayer book - Do Briskers use a particular siddur?


Presumably Briskers generally daven nusach Ashkenaz. Is there a particular siddur associated with Brisk, perhaps with haskomos from Brisker roshei yeshivos?





energy - How can melting point equal freezing point?


I don't understand how the freezing point of a substance is the same temperature as the melting point of the same substance.


For example, if liquid water freezes at 0 °C how can ice also melts at 0 °C?



Answer




Because melting point and freezing point describe the same transition of matter, in this case from liquid to solid (freezing) or equivalently, from solid to liquid (melting).


What you may not realize is that while water is freezing or melting, its temperature is not changing! It is stuck on $0\ \mathrm{^\circ C}$ during the entire melting or freezing process. It is easier to see this for boiling points. if you put a thermometer in water and heat it, the temperature will rise until it reaches $100\ \mathrm{^\circ C}$, and then it starts boiling. And while it boils, it will stay at $100\ \mathrm{^\circ C}$! All the way until the water has all boiled away. Now if you could somehow trap the steam (gaseous water) and keep heating it, the steam could have a temperature higher than $100\ \mathrm{^\circ C}$.


So to sum this all up, when matter is transitioning from solid to liquid (melting) or liquid to solid (freezing), its temperature is fixed at the melting/freezing point, which is the same temperature.


word choice - IT system renewal: Can I say 更新 for "renewal"?


I am starting a new project and have to come up with a name for it so that everybody knows what we are talking about.


The project is the renewal of an IT application that I will call エックスワイゼッド. Improving the existing software and adding a few features.


Can I call it エックスワイゼット更新プロジェクト ?


Is there a better word/expression?


I looked up on ALC and others but could not find. Your methodology for translating this kind of term would also interest me :-)




Answer



Yes, renewal (of a computer system/hardware/software) can be 更新. For example, the Tokyo Stock Exchange (TSE) renewed their system in Jan. 2010, and the heading on the website of the news agency Kyodo News was:



東証、4日に新システム稼働 10年ぶり更新 (とうしょう、よっかにしんシステムかどう じゅうねんぶりこうしん) TSE to start a new system on (Jan.) 4th; the first renewal in ten years



Another candidate for the project name might be エックスワイゼッド新バージョン開発プロジェクト (the project for developing a new version of XYZ). Compared to エックスワイゼッド更新プロジェクト, this focuses on the development of the application program.


(By the way, this has nothing to do with the question itself, but the letter Z in the English alphabet is usually read as ゼット rather than ゼッド in Japanese.)


electrochemistry - Delta G for Standard Hydrogen Electrode reaction


I’m dealing with electrochemistry problems. For the following reaction $$\ce{2H+ +2e- <=>H2}\quad E^\circ=0\ \mathrm{V}$$ Does it make sense to say $$\Delta G^\circ=-nFE^\circ=0$$ Which would mean the reaction is in equilibrium?




Can anyone explain the grammar behind the "sentence ending" とでも?


Is it an abbreviation of a longer phrase? Or is it just kind of like the American street slang, "And what..?" As in, "You think you're hot? And what..?"


But in this case perhaps it is almost like asking if the listener had any "buts" or objections to the statement.



そんな[怒]{いか}りに[妾]{わらわ}が[怯]{ひる}むとでも?

And you think that anger would make me flinch?




「それが[実証]{じっしょう}できるとでも?」
`You're going to verify THAT?'




あなたに言われないと分からないとでも?
Like I need you to tell me that.





「ほかになりようがあるとでも?」と[女王]{じょおう}さま。
'What would you have it?' said the Queen. (from Alice in Wonderland)




同性愛者ですが何か?それが[犯罪]{はんざい}だとでも?
So what if I am gay? Is it a crime?



Source:


http://eow.alc.co.jp/search?q=とでも?





parshanut torah comment - Why can't Ploni Almoni be a real name, in Ruth?


The verse states (Ruth 4:1):




וּבֹעַז עָלָה הַשַּׁעַר, וַיֵּשֶׁב שָׁם, וְהִנֵּה הַגֹּאֵל עֹבֵר אֲשֶׁר דִּבֶּר-בֹּעַז, וַיֹּאמֶר סוּרָה שְׁבָה-פֹּה פְּלֹנִי אַלְמֹנִי; וַיָּסַר, וַיֵּשֵׁב
Now Boaz went up to the gate, and sat him down there; and, behold, the near kinsman of whom Boaz spoke came by; unto whom he said: 'Ho, such a one! turn aside, sit down here.' And he turned aside, and sat down.



Why is everyone so convinced that Ploni Almoni is meant to be a placeholder of sorts and not actually his name? And if it is a placeholder, then what is its root? P-L-N? What does that mean?



Answer



In hebrew wiki, you can see usage of this term in Shmuel 1 21:3 as a placeholder of a place (hmm...), so it couldn't be a name of a person.


This is also supported by linguistic connection of the words Ploni and Unknown



הפרשנים הסבירו את מקור המילה "פלוני" כגזור מ"פלאי", סתום, ואת "אלמוני" מלשון "אלמון", דהיינו כאדם אלמן, או מלשון אילם, שכן אין יודעים לקרוא לו בשם.‏




However, there also brought an opinion (of Rabbi Yehoshua Ben Levi) that in Ruth this is really a name of a person.


Thursday 25 June 2015

Why formulate drugs as HCl salts when HCl is in stomach acid?


I know there are issues of formulation and industrial processing that make it advantageous to produce many amine containing drugs as their salts rather than as freebases. And if giving the drug intravenously, the increased water solubility is clearly an advantage. But if giving orally, is there not sufficient HCl in the stomach to have this occur in vivo? Is it just that some of these drugs are too non polar to even go into solution in the stomach acid? Or do we just need to avoid neutralizing too much of the stomach acid with a drug not intended for that purpose?




physical chemistry - Are there any known chemical properties of tritium water that make it unusually different from protium water?


I suppose the first question supporting the main question is, has tritium water ever been synthesized in sufficient quantity to test chemical properties?



If so, and apart from the obvious radioactive nature of the molecule, and possibly self-heating nature, what unusual properties does tritium water have over protium water?


For example, deuterium oxide is not (easily) metabolized by living things; it cannot support life in the same manner as protium oxide. Also protium water is blue and deuterium oxide is clear. What color is tritium oxide?



Answer



Yes, $\ce{T2O}$ has been prepared and is available in significant quantity. When relatively pure, the energy released by the radioactive decay process is so intense that $\ce{T2O}$ will boil. It must be transported in a shielded, cryogenic dewar.


A significant difference between compounds containing an element bonded to protium, deuterium or tritium is the strength of those 3 bonds. The $\ce{X-H}$ bond will be the weakest and $\ce{X-T}$ bond the stongest. We can compare these bond strengths by measuring the relative rates at which the $\ce{X-H}$, $\ce{X-D}$ and $\ce{X-T}$ bonds are broken in a given isotopically substituted compound. These rate differences reflect what is known as a primary kinetic isotope effect. In carbon systems (X=C) the maximum primary isotope effects are roughly as follows: $$\frac{K_H}{K_D} \sim 6-7$$ $$\frac{K_H}{K_T} \sim 13-14$$ In other words, a $\ce{C-H}$ bond may break as much as 13 times faster than a $\ce{C-T}$ bond.


These same effects will also be seen with $\ce{O-H}$, $\ce{O-D}$ and $\ce{O-T}$ bonds. The primary kinetic isotope effects will be slightly smaller here because the magnitude of the effect is mass dependent and oxygen has a larger mass than carbon. Still, as you pointed out, the effects can be disastrous in biological systems. Biological systems cannot survive if the rates for key reactions are slowed down by such large factors.


The blue color of protium water ($\ce{H2O}$) is due to red light absorption around 700 nm. The frequency of an absorption is given by the following equation


$$\nu_e=\frac{1}{2\pi}\sqrt{\frac{k}{\mu}}$$


Here $\ce{\mu}$ is the reduced mass of the system (e.g. the bond involved in the vibration that is producing the light absorption) and is given as


$$μ=\frac{m_1 \cdot m_2}{m_1 + m_2}$$



where $m_1$ and $m_2$ are the atomic masses located at both ends of the bond. We see that the reduced mass for an $\ce{O-H}$ bond is 16/17, while it is 32/18 for an $\ce{O-D}$ bond. Since, as shown above, the vibrational frequency is inversely related to the reduced mass, we would expect the $\ce{O-H}$ vibration to occur at higher frequency (shorter wavelength) than the $\ce{O-D}$ vibration. Indeed, while $\ce{H2O}$ absorbs around 700 nm, $\ce{D2O}$ absorbs at higher wavelength (~1000 nm) and is colorless (reference, see p. 82). Given the even larger reduced mass for $\ce{T2O}$ (48/19), it's absorption should be shifted even further out of the visible range, so it too should be colorless.


Simple questions related to dft



I'm reading a book about dsp and doing some exercises. Here is question that confused me:


A peak appears at index number 19 when a 256 point DFT is taken of a signal


1) What is the frequency of the peak expressed as a fraction of the sampling rate? Do we need to know the actual sampling rate to answer this question?


2) What is the sampling rate if the peak corresponds to 21.5 kHz in analog signal?


My answers:


1) 19/256; no we don't need to know actual sampling rate


2) I think that we can't answer this question without additional info. Or maybe it is ((21.5/19)*256)*2 kHz?


Thanks in advance



Answer



The actual frequency in Hertz corresponding to DFT index $i$ with a DFT length of $N$ is



$$f=\frac{i}{N}f_s,\quad i=0,1,\ldots N-1\tag{1}$$


where $f_s$ is the sampling frequency. So if indices are numbered starting from $0$ (and index number $19$ is indeed the $20^{th}$ frequency bin, as assumed in (1)), then your answer is correct.


As for part 2 of the question, the answer is also given by (1), so


$$f_s=\frac{Nf}{i}$$


which gives $f_s=289.7\text{ kHz}$ for the given values of $i$, $N$, and $f$.


thermodynamics - Spontaneous/Non-Spontaneous Reactions and Reversible Reactions


My chemistry textbook states "Reversible reactions constitute a limiting case between spontaneous and non-spontaneous processes."


Does this mean that some of the reversible reactions are spontaneous and others are not? Or that the reversible reactions are sort of intermediary between said two types of reactions? Or something else?




shemoneh esrei - Useshuva Usefillah Utzedakah maavirin es roah hagezeira, where is this from?



Does anyone know the history of how "Useshuvah Usefillah Utzedakah maavirin es roah hagezeirah" was put into our Tefillah and/or who wrote it? (It's in the chazaras hashatz for musaf on Rosh Hashana and Yom Kipur).



Answer



Yerushalmi Taanis Perek 2 Halacha 1


אמר רבי לעזר: שלשה דברים מבטלין את הגזירה קשה ואילו הן: תפילה וצדקה ותשובה.


solid state chemistry - Confusion in unit cells of crystal system


Unit cells are divided into two main types



  1. Primitive

  2. Non-primitive


Primitive includes simple cubic lattice whereas non-primitive includes fcc bcc end centered..


Among the seven types of crystal systems orthorhomic crystal system posses both primitive as well as non-primitive unit cells i.e. face centred body centred rnd centred and simple cubic but the cubic system posses primitive , body centred and face centred arrangements only.



My question is if face centred is possible in cubic system why is not end centred type of unit cell arrangement possible in cubic system if there is no sort of hindrance in vacant space as in orthorhombic which posses all types of unit cell arrangements.



Answer



First, a note: the classification of crystal systems, or the reduction of possible lattice types into primitive Bravais lattices, has nothing to do with “space available” or “hindrance”. It is purely a mathematical property having to do with the symmetry of the lattices.


To answer your question, the base-centered cubic lattice is not a Bravais lattice, because it is equivalent to a simple tetragonal lattice:


      enter image description here


yosef - Was Joseph's bad report on his brothers evidence or simply damaging?



"Joseph, being seventeen years old, was feeding the flock with his brethren, being still a lad even with the sons of Bilhah, and with the sons of Zilpah, his father's wives; and Joseph brought evil report of them unto their father." Genesis 37:2 (JPS).


From contemporary views on halacha, it seems that it would be bad to report ("speak lashon hara") about anyone - even if the issue is a true wrongdoing. Nevertheless, the Torah seems to suggest that we are sometimes required to present evidence of bad behavior to a judge.


Was Joseph speaking lashon hara or was he simply giving a factual report to his father, the judge, about something gone bad?




Wednesday 24 June 2015

word choice - How to introduce myself in relation to my wife?


I know there are a few ways to essentially say "husband" (夫、旦那、主人). Can all be used by a speaker to refer to themselves?


Examples I thought of:



(私はAの)旦那/夫/主人です。


旦那/夫/主人の○○です。



I have a feeling I can't use 主人, but I'm not sure if that's correct, nor why.



How do I introduce myself in relation to my wife?


Related: How to introduce oneself in relation to ones husband?



Answer



主人 means 'master', so you shouldn't use it to refer yourself. When used by man to refer his relationship with his wife it feels rough, be careful. 主人 is polite when your wife refers you because it is considered as humbleness. Also it implies he is a bit serious person. This can be used by woman to introduce her husband in formal situation.


旦那 is almost similar to 主人 but implies he is somewhat rich, friendly and easy going person. This word is used by woman to introduce her husband with some friendliness to him and others listening to her speaking. Also used by man to refer other married man with friendliness.


夫 is normal. This word is safe to use always. Can be used in formal situation. To refer yourself as husband of someone, this word is almost only one you can use. To refer husband of other woman, this word somewhat lacks feeling of personal friendship to him, but safe.


To refer husband of other woman, 旦那さん is friendly and with some respect. To add more respect use 旦那様 or ご主人. They can be used in formal situation. You shouldn't use bare 主人 or 旦那 to refer other woman's husband because it lacks respect to him and his wife.


Also some people uses word 相方 to refer their husband/wife. This word can be used by woman to refer her husband, or by man to refer his wife. This word's feeling is friendliness and equality between them. But it is not very formal.


In corner case which you want to completely remove feeling of sexism, you can use 配偶者 to refer your wife. This word can be used by woman to refer her husband. But in Japanese society it is very rare. In almost case using 配偶者 feels like someone is taking too much care about sexism.


tefilla - Prayer inclusion because of fear?


In the Mishnah of Rabbi Eliezer, the son of Rabbi Yosi HaG'lili, the Sages said, "What is the biblical source to include prayer among the mitzvos? From the verse, 'You shall fear G‑d, your L‑rd, and you shall serve Him.' " Why is it from the verse to fear or have awe for HaShem?


I would like to know how he came to this conclusion, why is prayer included in the mitzvot because it's said that one should fear (have awe for) HaShem?


(I know that Ahavah and Yirah are two big pilars in faith, and that it's also said that prayer is Avodat Shebalev - Ta'anis 2a).




sources mekorot - Seventy approaches to Torah


It is often said that there are seventy approaches to Torah. What is the earliest known source that says this?


(This related question merely quotes "Bamidbar Rabbah," and I assume he refers to 13:15 16. Is that the earliest source?)



Answer



This exact expression is found in the Vilna ed. of Bamidbar Rabbah (13:5) as you note.


It is also found in B'reshit Rabbati (Parashat Vay'chi p. 141) which probably dates back to roughly the same time and place:



שידרוש בתורה בע' פנים מנין יין



An older source is the Midrash Otiot D'Rabbi Akiva (Version A) as found in the Battei Midrashot compilation (vol. II) which states:




מפני שכל גנזי החכמה מסורין בידו וכולן נפתחו למשה בסיני עד שלמדו לו בארבעים ימים כשהיה עומד בהר, התורה בשבעים פנים



This states that all the vaults of knowledge were possessed by [a particular angel] who transmitted them to Moshe who then learned the Torah with 70 faces.


According to Wikipedia Version B dates from at least the first half of the tenth century, and version A is even older.


A similar idea is found in the Talmud (Sanhedrin 34a, cf. Shabat 88b):



מקרא אחד יוצא לכמה טעמים ואין טעם אחד יוצא מכמה מקראות דבי ר' ישמעאל תנא (ירמיהו כג, כט) וכפטיש יפוצץ סלע מה פטיש זה מתחלק לכמה ניצוצות אף מקרא אחד יוצא לכמה טעמים


One verse is stated by God and from it emerge several explanations, but one explanation does not emerge from several verses. Alternatively, the school of Rabbi Yishmael taught that the verse states: “Is not My word like as fire? says the Lord; and like a hammer that breaks the rock in pieces” (Jeremiah 23:29). Just as this hammer breaks a stone into several fragments, so too, one verse is stated by God and from it emerge several explanations.




history - Vilna Gaon on Sefer Devarim


Where does the Gra mention the idea that Sefer Devarim is split up into parshiot representing the centuries going into the 6000 millennium? There is another idea that Ki Tavo fits into the years of the holocaust,where is this idea from?




signal analysis - Why NRZ-L and NRZ-I line coding have DC component?


I can find the effect of having a DC component in the Internet which is "When the AC waveform has a DC component, the average voltage would be equal to the DC voltage instead".


But in my text book, it says NRZ-L and NRZ-I both have a DC component although NRZ-L and NRZ-I can have the average voltage $0$.


Why is it?



Answer



Assuming bi-polar encoding, and assuming that the number of transmitted 1's is equal to the number of 0's, then over very long time intervals the positive pulses "cancel out" the negative pulses and the average voltage is zero.


However, over smaller time intervals, there's likely to be more 1's than 0's, or vice versa. This is what introduces a DC component to the signal.



Intuitively, you may think about it this way: if you filter the line-encoded signal with a very narrow low-pass filter, you'll see a non-zero, varying output. The DC value is the expected value of the filter's output.


In order to reduce or eliminate DC you need a line encoding that forces the number of positive and negative pulses to be the same, even over very short time spans. One example is the Alternate Mark Inversion (AMI) encoding.


tzedakah charity - Maaser for money received as a gift from Parents




As a child I received birthday money every year (I don't remember if I gave maaser at the time), my Parents put it in an interest bearing bond and when I turned 18 it matured and I was given $13,000. My Parents said the purpose of this money was to save it and help support myself and my husband when I get married. Do I have to give maaser on it now? Thank you!



Answer



See the 2nd paragraph, here, based on primarily sources from Choshen Mishpat:



Money that is given as a gift by parents or friends for a specific purpose, e.g. to purchase a car or go on a vacation, is not considered income, and Maaser need not be separated from it. (based on Choshen Mishpat 241:5)



Your parents saved it for a specific purpose, and when they gave it to you, they stipulated that same purpose. This is different than if they gave you $13,000 and said that you may do what you wish with it.


It is unclear to me if you have to give ma'aser post-fact, if you end up using it not for the purpose that it was given to go on a one-time pleasure cruise.


Also, within this caveat, I infer that you can't even touch the money until you get married! What happens if you remain single?



BTW - if you are single, I may have some nice boys that you may be interested to meet, if you are "in the parsha" :-)


tanach - Help me find a source for glossing "sefer" (in Shabbat 14a) as "Torah, Nevi'im, and Ketuvim"


In Shabbat 14a we find a discussion about the Rabbinic enactment that a book (sefer) renders one's hands unclean (which is itself discussed in the Mishnah Yadayim 3:5). Long ago I found a source (which I wrote down) that on 14a Rashi glosses "sefer" as referring to "all kitvei ha-kodesh -- Torah, Nevi'im and Ketuvim". But I just checked that daf and I don't see anything like that in the Rashi, which means I must have gotten that gloss from somewhere else (or it is there and I am just not seeing it for some reason).


Can anybody help me track down the source for that gloss?


To be clear, I am aware that there are extensive discussions elsewhere about the status of individual books (Esther, Kohelet, Shir ha-Shirim) and whether or not they are m'tamei et hayadayim. I am not looking for that.



Answer



It's a רש"י in שבת on Daf :י"ג that says:



והספר. כל כתבי הקודש תורה נביאים וכתובים פוסלין תרומה במגען




Tuesday 23 June 2015

repentance teshuvah - Does teshuva remove punishment?



In Bamidbar 15, the text speaks of someone who commits an intentional sin (mentioning idolatry and blasphemy) and says that kareit is the punishment (if there was no warning) etc. Then the story of the man who was found gathering stick on Shabbat is related and his punishment is a death penalty.


The Stone chumash notes that in the first cases, one cannot atone through an offering (and no other method of atonement is discussed) but in pasuk 31, the phrase "עֲו‍ֹנָה בָהּ" is understood by Rashi to mean that excision from the community lasts until the person does teshuva - so there must be an atonement process (also cited in Sanhedrin 90b). So it seems that doing teshuva can stop kareit which has already started.


But is repentance an effect of having received a punishment or is it separate from that? Can I repent sincerely and avoid punishment in the first place? If the man gathering wood on Shabbat, after having been warned and in the presence of witnesses, hears his death sentence and then truly repents (not out of fear but maybe out of a realization that he did wrong on a grand scale and a wish to be a better person), must the death penalty be carried out because it is a required consequence or is the penalty eliminated because of teshuva? Can the intentional idolater change the divine decree of kareit before it takes place (if, for example,one understands Kareit to be "dying young")?


[One cannot repent after having been killed but if one does repent before his execution then he can still have his share in olam haba (as per the Sifre on pasuk 31, cited in the Stone).]




readings - Appending 内 to a company name is read ない or うち?

For example, if I say マイクロソフト内のパートナーシップは強いです, is the 内 here read as うち or ない? Answer 「内」 in the form: 「Proper Noun + 内」 is always read 「ない...